Sunday, 9 November 2014

OSCE - Arterial Blood Gas (Teaching)

Introduction


Introduce to the junior doctor, medical student, etc.

Find out the level of knowledge of ABG sampling.

Then explain the procedure as you go along.


Then introduce yourself to the patient and take consent that you are going to teach a junior doctor.


Check patient details:


Ensure the patient is not on any anticoagulants

Check platelets are not low & confirm coagulation blood results are normal

Take note of whether the patient is requiring oxygen & record how much (e.g. 15L)


Ensure they’re no contraindications to ABG sampling:
Absolute – Poor collateral circulation / PVD in the limb / Cellulitis surrounding site / AV fistula
Relative – Impaired coagulation (anticoagulation therapy / liver disease / low platelets <50 )


Explain procedure to patient:

“I need to take a sample of blood from an artery in the wrist to assess the oxygen levels in your circulation. It will be a little painful, but will only take a short time”


Gain consent


Allen’s Test:


This test involves the assessment of the arterial supply to the hand

Ask the patient to raise their hand & make a fist for 30 seconds

Apply pressure over both the radial & ulnar artery at the wrist, occluding them

Then ask the patient to open their hand, which should appear blanched

Remove the pressure from the ulnar artery, whilst maintaining pressure over the radial

If there is adequate blood supply from the ulnar artery, colour should return within 7 seconds

It should be noted that there is no evidence performing this test reduces the rate of ischaemic complications of arterial sampling.


Gather equipment


Arterial blood gas needle – heparinised

Alcohol swabs

Gauze

Tape

Lidocaine (1%) – with small needle/syringe for administration


Preparation


Wash hands

Position patients arm – ideally the wrist should be extended to make the artery more superficial

Palpate radial artery – most pulsatile on the lateral anterior aspect of the wrist

Put on gloves

Clean the site with an alcohol wipe

Infiltrate 0.1-0.2mls of 1% lidocaine subcutaneously over the planned puncture site (unless its an emergency)

Ensure to aspirate prior to injection of local anaesthetic

Allow 60 seconds for the local anesthetic to work

Attach needle to the syringe & expel the heparin


Taking the sample


1. Use one hand to palpate the radial artery – ensure you assess the course of the artery

2. Insert the needle using your other hand at an angle of 30 degrees

3. Aim towards the pulsation you are palpating with your non-dominant hand

4. As you puncture the artery, you should observe bright red blood flashback into the needle

5. The needle should begin to self-fill, in a pulsatile manner

6. Once the required amount of blood has been collected, quickly remove the needle

7. You should immediately press down firmly with some gauze over the site

8. You need to press down firmly for at least 5 minutes, to prevent haematoma formation

9. Some ABG needle sets come with a rubber block, to insert the used needle tip into and some needle have a security cap.

10. Remove the needle from the syringe & discard into a sharps bin

11. Place a cap on the syringe


To complete the procedure


Dress the puncture site

Thank patient

Remove gloves and wash hands

Take blood gas sample to an analyser as soon as possible to ensure accurate results


Closing statements


Answer any questions the junior doctor may have during the whole process.

Ask the junior doctor to read about the indictions of doing an ABG and to discuss in 1-2 weeks time.

To perform the procedure under supervision and complete a DOPS.

Thank the junior doctor


Input from Geeky Medics



OSCE - Arterial Blood Gas (Teaching)

Saturday, 1 November 2014

OSCE - Knee Examination

The following videos I found very useful for the practice of knee examination.


The first video by Geeky Medics is very good. But the missed out the McMurray test for maniscus injury in their special test. In the second video the McMurray test is shown at 4:35







Introduction


Wash hands
Introduce yourself
Check patient details – name / DOB
Explain examination
Gain consent
Expose patients legs
Position – standing
Ask if patient has any pain anywhere before you begin and offer analgesics accordingly!


Look


Inspect around bed for aids & adaptations - walking stick /wheelchair /knee brace/ etc


Gait


Is the patient demonstrating a normal heel strike / toe off gait?
Is each step of normal height? – increased stepping height is noted in foot drop
Is the gait smooth & symmetrical?
Any obvious abnormalities? – antalgia /waddling /broad based /high stepping?


Inspection from front


Scars – previous surgery / trauma
Swellings - effusions / inflammatory arthropathy / septic arthritis / gout
Asymmetry / leg length differences 
Valgus or varus deformity
Quadriceps wasting – suggests chronic inflammation / reduced mobility


Inspection from the back


Popliteal swellings – Baker’s cyst / Popliteal aneurysm


.Feel


Ask patient to lay on bed
Assess temperature – ↑ temperature may suggest inflammation / infection
Palpate joint lines – irregularities / tenderness (ask patient to flex knee slightly)
Palpate collateral ligamentseither side of joint
Palpate patello-femoral joint
Measure quadriceps circumference & compare2.5cm above tibial tubercle


Sweep Test- (small effusion)


1. Empty the media joint recess using a wiping motion
2. This milks any fluid into the lateral joint recess
3. Now do a similar wiping motion to the lateral recess
4. Watch the medial recess
5. If fluid is present a bulge will appear on medial recess


Patella tap- (large effusion)


1. Use your palm to milk fluid from the anterior thigh towards the patella
2. Keep tight hold of the thigh just above the patella
3. With the other hand, press on the patella with two fingers
4. If fluid is present you will feel a distinct tap against the femur


Popliteal swellings- (bakers cyst)


1. Palpate the popliteal fossa with your finger tips
2. Feel for any obvious collection of fluid


Move


Perform flexion / extension both actively & passively (feeling for creptius)

Knee flexion – ask patient to move heel towards bottom – normal ROM 0-140º
Knee extension – ask patient to straighten leg out fully 
Hyperextension –  lift both legs by the feet - note any hyperextension (<10º is normal)


Special Tests


Anterior/Posterior Drawer Test


1. Flex patients knee to 90º
2. Rest your forearm down the patients lower leg to hold their lower leg still
3. Wrap your fingers around back of the knee using both hands
4. Position thumbs over the tibial tuberosity
5. Pull the tibia anteriorly  -  significant movement suggests anterior cruciate laxity /rupture
6. Push the tibia posteriorly  -  significant movement suggests posterior cruciate laxity /rupture
With healthy cruciate ligaments there should be little or no movement noted 


Collateral Ligaments


1. Extend the patients knee fully
2. Hold just above the patients knee with one hand
3. Hold the patients lower portion of the leg with the other hand
4. Attempt to bend the lower leg medially (lateral collateral ligament)
5. Attempt to bend the lower leg laterally (medial collateral ligament)..
With healthy collateral ligaments there should be no abduction or adduction possible


If abduction/adduction is possible, it suggests laxity / rupture of the corresponding collateral ligament


McMurray Test for Maniscus


Patient lies supine


Knee flexed to 45 degrees

Hip flexed to 45 degrees

Examiner braces lower leg

One hand holds ankle

Other hand holds knee


Medial meniscus assessment

Assess for pain on palpation

Palpate medial joint line with knee flexed

Assess for “click” suggesting meniscus relocation

Apply valgus stress to flexed knee

Externally rotate leg (toes point outward)

Slowly extend the knee while still in valgus


Lateral meniscus

Repeat above with varus stress and internal rotation


Positive Test suggests Meniscal Injury


“Click” heard or palpated on above manoeuvres

Joint line tenderness on palpation


To complete the examination


Thank the patient
Wash your hands
Summarise your findings


.Say you would…


Perform a full neurovascular examination of both limbs
Examine the joint above and below - ankle/ hip
Request an X-ray of the knee joint if pathology was suspected


Input from Geeky Medics






OSCE - Knee Examination

Sunday, 12 October 2014

What are Never Events?

The term ‘never event’ was first introduced in 2001 by Ken Kizer, former chief executive of the National Quality Forum in the United States, in reference to particularly shocking medical errors that should never occur.


Over time, the term has been expanded to signify adverse events that are unambiguous (clearly identifiable and measurable), serious (resulting in death or significant disability), and usually preventable if the available measures have been implemented by healthcare providers.


The information from the United States indicates that the use of the term and its associated focus has improved safety.


In the UK the term was introduced in April 2009, following Lord Darzi’s proposal in High Quality Care for All. The original list consisted of the following:


  1. Wrong site surgery 

  2. Retained instrument post-operation (includes swabs and throat packs)

  3. Wrong route administration of chemotherapy

  4. Misplaced naso or orogastric tube not detected prior to use

  5. In-hospital maternal death from post-partum haemorrhage after caesarean section

  6. Inpatient suicide using non-collapsible rails

  7. Escape from within the secure perimeter of medium or high secure mental health services by patients who are transferred prisoners

  8. Intravenous administration of mis-selected concentrated potassium chloride.

To be a never event, an incident must fulfil the following criteria:


  • It has clear potential for, or has caused severe harm or death.

  • There is evidence that it has occurred in the past (ie, it is a known source of risk).

  • There is existing national guidance or safety recommendations on how it can be prevented and there is support for implementing these.

  • It can be easily defined, identified and continually measured.

Serious events (including never events) are assessed and categorised as grade 1 or 2, depending on the seriousness of the event. They should all be reported to the primary care trust (or clinical commissioning group), as well as the National Reporting and Learning Service (NRLS – at Imperial College), with never events being specified in the free text field. Since the summer, reports should also be made to the Strategic Executive Information System.


Although such events are reported to CQC and Monitor through the NRLS, it is much better if they are reported directly to CQC (and Monitor for foundation trusts and the NHS Trust Development Authority for non-foundation trusts). Serious events are investigated and shared with the PCT and an action plan shared widely to improve the service.


CQC may use information on never events to inform our regulatory processes, alongside other indicators, and we may take enforcement action.


In the first year of reporting, there were 111 never events. Of these, 57 were due to wrong site surgery, and 41 due to misplaced nasogastric tubes. There were no events due to wrong route administration of chemotherapy, in-hospital maternal death from post-partum haemorrhage after elective caesarean section, and inpatient suicide using non-collapsible rails. The remainder were under 10 events.


We would all agree that the national reporting system is in dire need of revision to ensure that it becomes a true national learning experience.


There has been a recent review of never events and the list extended to the following:


  1. Wrong site surgery

  2. Wrong implant/prosthesis

  3. Retained foreign object post-operation

  4. Wrongly prepared high-risk injectable medication

  5. Maladministration of potassium-containing solutions

  6. Wrong route administration of chemotherapy

  7. Wrong route administration of oral/enteral treatment

  8. Intravenous administration of epidural medication

  9. Maladministration of insulin

  10. Overdose of midazolam during conscious sedation

  11. Opioid overdose of an opioid-naïve patient

  12. Inappropriate administration of daily oral methotrexate

  13. Suicide using non-collapsible rails

  14. Escape of a transferred prisoner

  15. Falls from unrestricted windows

  16. Entrapment in bedrails

  17. Transfusion of ABO-incompatible blood components

  18. Transplantation of ABO-incompatible organs as a result of error

  19. Misplaced naso- or oro-gastric tubes

  20. Wrong gas administered

  21. Failure to monitor and respond to oxygen saturation

  22. Air embolism

  23. Misidentification of patients

  24. Severe scalding of patients

  25. Maternal death due to post partum haemorrhage after elective Caesarean section.

The bolded ones would be more appropriate for the Emergency Department.


Input from CQC



What are Never Events?

Saturday, 27 September 2014

The FCEM Management Viva - The Basics





The Management Viva


Total of 35min

There is a structured marking grid with ideal Answers

The pass mark is 60-65%


The aim is to assess:


  • Ability to prioritise and time manage

  • Decision making

  • Delegation

  • Communication Skills

  • Medico-legal awareness

  • Governance

  • Ethics & Probity

  • Managing your staff

  • Recognising educational opportunities

  • Knowledge of complaints and disciplinary procedure

Common Themes


  • Complaints

  • Doctors with difficulties

  • Freedom of information

  • Staffing issues

  • SUIs /Adverse events

  • Policy Declarations from other departments

The In Tray


  • 5 minutes Reading time

  • 15 minutes viva

  • Usually maximum of 9 items

  • Consists of your Diary Card, Letters, memos, emails

  • The first 5 minutes is the most important make sure you read everything, and sort them in order of priority

  • Write post it notes of key bits. You can also write or underline on the exam papers.

  • You get marks for talking about everything in the in tray even the fillers

  • Diary Card is the most important as it gives details of your department and offers ways to link things in for extra marks

  • Keep it in front of you

Starting the Viva


  • Check the department first – if it is melt down then everything else waits.

  • Do I have a clinic or a ward round?

  • Can a middle-grade start it?

  • What meetings do I have? When are they? Who will be there?

  • Do they tie into anything in my box?









Structure of answers


  • Have structure to your answers. The following headings might help.

  • Always talk about information gathering and how you going to do that. (Patient’s notes, statement from staff, CCTV, IT records, etc)

  • Patient issues – Is the patient safe now? Was the treatment/management appropriate?

  • Staffing issues – Are there any staff member affected and how? Don’t forget about the pastoral care.

  • Short term solutions – Junior doctor teaching session, removing sharps and putting appropriate sharp bins, etc.

  • Long term solutions – Making formal policy or pathway.





Prioritising your In Tray


Three levels of priority:


  1. Important and time dependant – You need to sort out now

  2. Important but not time dependant – You can sort out later

  3. Neither important nor time dependant

Tell the examiners how you have done this.


Marking and Scoring Well


  • Remember that it is a fixed scheme with ideal answers, every piece in your in- tray carries marks, but value varies (2-12)

  • Spend more time on complicated ones

  • Score higher by finding the tie ups to diary and other items in the In-Tray

  • Be decisive – don’t sit on the fence

  • Mention the links and tie ins

  • “I’d like to check on the patient”

  • Delegate appropriately

  • Secure copies of notes and documents

  • Take minutes of important meetings

  • Empathise with the situation

  • Address the issues

  • Use guidelines

  • Know the organisations who can help – CQC, NPSA, NCAS etc

  • Know the processes at your trust – download and read your policies



The common pitfalls are:

Sounding like you have just learnt off the answer

Not touching on all parts of the in-tray

Not moving on in a timely manner

Arguing with the examiners

The Long Case


  • More difficult to predict

  • Complex multifaceted case

  • Once you look up from reading it they will start quizzing you

On the day of the Vivas


  • Dress if going for an interview.

  • Lots of hanging about on this day.

  • Be calm.

  • Time is short, so make good use of it

  • Read all the papers and have something to say about each of them

  • If the examiners try to move you on then let them

  • Don’t look up from the long case until you have read it all

  • Don’t get aggressive.

  • Be polite

With input from London FCEM Course







The FCEM Management Viva - The Basics

Thursday, 4 September 2014

Ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome (OHSS)

Ovarian hyper stimulation syndrome (OHSS) is the most serious consequence of induction of ovulation. It may occur after stimulation of the ovaries into superovulation with drugs such as human chorionic gonadotrophin (hCG) and human menopausal gonadotrophin. It is rare with clomifene except in polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS).


Grades and associated clinical features:


Mild OHSS


  • Abdominal bloating.

  • Mild abdominal pain.

  • Ovarian size usually <8 cm.

Moderate OHSS


  • Moderate abdominal pain.

  • Nausea ± vomiting.

  • Ultrasound evidence of ascites.

  • Ovarian size usually 8-12 cm.

Severe OHSS


  • Clinical ascites (occasionally hydrothorax).

  • Oliguria.

  • Haemoconcentration haematocrit >45%.

  • Hypoproteinaemia.

  • Ovarian size usually >12 cm.

Critical OHSS


  • Tense ascites or large hydrothorax.

  • Haematocrit >55%.

  • White cell count >25 x 109/L.

  • Oligo-anuria.

  • Thromboembolism.

  • Acute respiratory distress syndrome.

Risk factors:


  • Polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS) greatly increases the risk.

  • Younger women are at greater risk.

  • High oestrogen levels and a large number of follicles.

  • The use of hCG for luteal phase support.

  • Administration of gonadotrophin-releasing hormone (GnRH) agonist.


Presentation:


  • Symptoms usually appear 4 or 5 days after harvesting of eggs.

  • There is abdominal pain and distension due to accumulation of fluid.

  • In 1 or 2% of cases with very enlarged ovaries, the patient is ill with severe pain, nausea and vomiting.

  • There may also be pleural effusions with fluid passing from the abdomen into the pleural cavity.

Investigations:


  • Ultrasound of the ovaries and abdomen for fluid. A possible risk in this condition is torsion of the ovary and ultrasound scan may suggest this.

  • FBC,as there may be haemoconcentration. (Serious findings are haematocrit above 45% and white cell count above 15 x 109/L.)

  • U&E and creatinine, as renal function may be impaired. (Serious findings are sodium below 135 mmol/L or potassium above 5.0 mmol/L.)

  • Coagulation screen.

  • LFTs.

  • CXR and lateral (to assess any pleural effusion).

Management:


In mild cases:

Analgesia and increased oral fluids will suffice. The condition will settle rapidly unless pregnancy occurs, when it will take longer to subside.
In moderate cases:

Admission to hospital for thromboprophylaxis and monitoring may be judicious.
Severe cases:

These require very careful monitoring of fluid balance:


  • An initial bolus of a litre of fluid intravenously (IV) should be followed by enough to maintain urine output of 30 to 40 ml an hour.

  • A diuretic should be given if urine output is inadequate.

  • Aspiration of ascites or pleural effusion can relieve symptoms.

  • Albumin may be given to replace circulating volume and it may need to be given periodically:

  • Clear guidance on the management of the acute, severe condition is not available but each aspect is tackled as required and intensive care may be required.




Ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome (OHSS)

Monday, 30 June 2014

CAP 6: Breathlessness

1. Spontaneous Pneumothorax


By definition spontaneous pneumothoraces occur in the absence of any trauma (including iatrogenic causes) to the chest wall.


  • Primary spontaneous pneumothoraces occur in people with no underlying lung pathology.

  • Secondary spontaneous pneumothoraces occur in patients with pre-existing lung parenchymal or pleural pathology (e.g. asthma, lung carcinoma).

All patients with secondary pneumothoraces should be admitted and, unless specifically contraindicated, be given high concentration oxygen. Administration of oxygen at 15 l/min via a non-rebreathe mask will increase the rate of resolution of the pneumothorax by 4 times compared to breathing room air.


BTS Pneumothorax Flowchart


Advice to patient if discharged from the ED with small primary pneumothorax


  • Stop smoking (if smoker) and to seek help from his GP to do this. The risk of recurrence will be much higher should he continue to smoke.

  • To return to the ED for a repeat chest radiograph and senior doctor review after 2 weeks, or sooner if he becomes more breathless. Although it would be preferable for him to see a respiratory specialist, it may be impossible to access specialist clinics in the recommended timeframe. But, in some Trusts they have arrangement to see chest specialists early. 

  • Avoid flying for at least a week after a chest radiograph has confirmed complete resolution of his pneumothorax (BTS Air Travel Working Party)

  • To avoid underwater diving permanently unless he has bilateral open surgical pleurectomy (The British Thoracic Society Fitness to Dive Group)

BTS. Pleural disease, 2010.

BTS. Pleural disease, 2010.


BTS. Air travel recommendations, 2011

BTS. Air travel recommendations, 2011


BTS. Emergency oxygen use in adult patients, 2008.

BTS. Emergency oxygen use in adult patients, 2008.



CAP 6: Breathlessness

The College of Emergency Medicine - Curriculum

The College of Emergency Medicine has published the curriculum in 2010 and it was revised in 30th May 2012. It’s a good idea to know what college expect from the trainee during the exam process.


The major clinical presentation starts from the page 111.



Download (PDF, 2.82MB)



The College of Emergency Medicine - Curriculum

Tuesday, 17 June 2014

Management Viva - Complaint related documents

The following documents are freely available in the internet which I found important for the understanding of NHS complaints.


Few important points to remember:


  • Time frame to make a complaint is one year.

  • The acknowledgement of a formal complain should be sent out within 3 days.

  • If complaint comes directly to the department, it should be diverted to the Complaint Manager.

  • Complaint Manager in most NHS Trust are located in PALS

  • Investigating officer (nominated ED consultant) will draft a formal response after gathering available information mentioned in the complaint.

  • The formal response will be typed and then signed by Chief Executive and send out to the complainant.

  • The time frame of the formal response will depend on the complexity of the case.

  • If the complainant is happy, it will stop there. And if not happy with the process they will have to contact Health Service Ombudsman.

  • The Health Service Ombudsman will review the case before accepting.

1. Clinical Negligence Litigation: A very brief guide for clinicians


NHS LA Document

NHS LA Document



2. Department of Health guidance on NHS Complaints


A Guide to Better Customer Care

A Guide to Better Customer Care


Dealing with serious complaints

Dealing with serious complaints



3. MPS Series on Complaints


NHS Complaints in England: Regulations and Principles

NHS Complaints in England: Regulations and Principles


Complaints: FAQ

Complaints: FAQ


4. MDU Series on Complaints


Introduction

Introduction


Local Resolution

Local Resolution


Writing a Response

Writing a Response


Health Service Ombudsman

Health Service Ombudsman



5. Procedure for Investigation and Resolving Complaints


The Leeds Teaching Hospitals NHS Trust

The Leeds Teaching Hospitals NHS Trust



This document is slightly older but gives a good overview of hospital complaints process.


The time frame for complaints is 12months now.


The time frame for sending out acknowledgement letter in response to a complaint is 3 days.



Download (DOC, 64KB)





6. NHS Complaints Procedures in England


Information for the Member of Parliament

Information for the Member of Parliament



Management Viva - Complaint related documents

Doctors in Difficulty - Drugs and Alcohol

A reasonable number of trainees can become ill during training: of these, most have a psychiatric or stress-related problem. Many can be ill for some time, & either not recognised that they were ill or decided against reporting this. A small number use drugs or alcohol.


There are several things to consider. Immediate patient safety must come first; a person currently under the influence of drugs or alcohol must be removed from the clinical situation.


Once this is done, & assuming the person is sober enough to talk, it’s important to find somewhere appropriate to hold a confidential conversation. As I’m doing this, I run through a mental check-list: what would it be like to be this doctor, who is the best person to have this conversation, what skills must I demonstrate, & what practicalities need sorting out?


What it would be like to be the doctor in difficulty?:
In most circumstances, doctors who abuse drugs or alcohol have begun the habit as a coping strategy because of stress or illness. Doctors who are ill, particularly those with psychological or stress-related illness are concerned about being stigmatised. They describe a feeling of shame, of letting themselves down by not meeting their own high personal standards, worries about confidentiality & loss of control & fears about damage to their livelihood because of disciplinary action or referral to the General Medical Council (GMC). Particular concerns for those in training grades are that they may lose the respect of others, & that disclosing a mental illness, especially alcohol or drug use, may threaten their career & job prospects. So the person is being very brave in talking at all. He or she will have mentally rehearsed this situation many times & reached the conclusion that it’s safer to say nothing about his or her problem. Even if the person wanted to talk, deciding who to tell is difficult.


Who is best to have this conversation?:
It is important that the doctor speaks to someone he or she respects & trusts to keep the matter as confidential as possible. So I ask “You need to talk to someone about this. Should this be me or is there someone else you would prefer to talk to?” I offer the trainee the option of bringing someone with them. Sometimes, but in my experience rarely, they will want to.


What skills must I demonstrate?:
The conversation will only be useful if the trainee feels that the conversation is confidential & he or she is being treated with respect, empathy & genuineness. I need to make sure I demonstrate these qualities, not just feel them. I start with a comment such as “We need to talk about what’s happened, & how you are. The most important thing we need to do is explore & understand what’s going on from your perspective.” The first thing I do is to listen. It might seem a rather weak response when you have a hundred questions going round in your head. But just listening actively to everything the person says, summarising & being sure to notice the trainee’s feelings & reflect them back accurately, is likely to achieve most. You’re not the person’s doctor – you don’t need to know what substances, how often, where or when.


Caught in the act, most people acknowledge events. Those who refute what is described or deny their involvement are almost always using a coping strategy of putting blame on others or on circumstances; they know they’ve got a problem but don’t feel safe to talk about it. If this happens, I start by explaining what I saw or has been reported to me as having occurred, outline what happens to doctors with drug & alcohol problems & what we are required to do to meet governance & GMC requirements. I also make clear that they are not alone, & that many colleagues who have found themselves in this sort of difficulty return to work &/or to training. There are a number of services for doctors with health difficulties & for doctors with drug & alcohol problems* & I make sure the trainee is made aware of these.


What practicalities need sorting?


Three aspects need to be managed; the doctor’s health & treatment, governance, & informing those who need to know that a trainee has a drug or alcohol problem. 


Health & treatment:


The outcome I aim for is that the trainee gets to the right services to treat & support them, but in a way that preserves his or her dignity & keeps the details of his or her situation as confidential as possible. Treatment of their underlying problem might be achieved through their GP, via the consultant occupational physician or through direct contact with the local drug & alcohol service. As many such people have an underlying illness which also needs treatment, a consultation with the GP can be helpful. However there are a group of doctors for whom the GP is a family friend, or part of a social, ethnic or religious community, when the problem of disclosure & potential stigma can be a significant barrier.


If there is a good Occupational Physician in the Trust or available via the Deanery, it is very useful for the trainee to see this person. It is the responsibility of the Occupational Physician to advise the trainee, Trust & Deanery as to whether the doctor is well enough to continue working & if so, what adjustments are needed to their duties or working pattern. In practical terms this usually means the doctor is “given permission to be ill”, & to take time away from work to address the underlying causes of their problem as well as their drug or alcohol usage. If the doctor is well enough to remain at work in some capacity, the Occupational Physician acts as the doctor’s advocate in making sure the duties &/or training requirements expected of a trainee are realistic in the context of their health difficulties. The Occupational Physician may also refer them on to the appropriate clinician (often a psychiatrist) & to the drug & alcohol service, as they will know which doctors are used to treating fellow professionals.


Governance:


The GMC requires every doctor to:


  • Act without delay if you have good reason to believe that you or a colleague may be putting patients at risk.

  • Consult a suitably qualified colleague if your judgement or performance could be affected by a condition or its treatment & ask for & follow their advice about investigations, treatment & changes to your practice that they consider necessary.

In practice, this means that every doctor has a responsibility to remove a colleague from the immediate clinical situation if the doctor is under the influence of drugs or alcohol. The doctor him or herself must not put patients at risk, & must consult & follow the advice of the Occupational Physician, their GP & the consultant who treats them as a patient.


When identified, matters relating to ill-health or to substance misuse should be dealt with through employers’ occupational health processes & outside disciplinary procedures where possible. Thus, the Trust in which a trainee works & the Deanery in whose programme he or she is training both have a responsibility to provide the trainee with the means to get treated & to address their tendency to use drugs or alcohol as a coping strategy.


In the medium term, the Trust & Deanery should support the trainee in returning to work, & returning to training, once they are well enough. Many such situations fall under the disability discrimination act, which places a duty on employers to make ‘adjustments’, such as to working hours, place of work or by modifying procedures for assessment. Again this is something for which the advice of a consultant Occupational Physician is important.


Who else will need to know?


The Postgraduate Dean, Trust Medical Director & Clinical Director will need to know of the trainee’s drug or alcohol problem because of their accountability for patient safety, & the GMC must be informed because of its fitness to practice responsibilities. I find this part of the discussion quite tricky to phrase well & introduce at the right time. If the earlier conversation has gone well, & I have managed to demonstrate respect, concern & empathy with the trainee, trust should be starting to develop between us. But this is often tenuous & can be easily broken. By introducing the need to inform those responsible for patient safety & fitness to practice too early in the conversation, I might add to their feelings of embarrassment & disgrace.


Sometimes this is too much of a challenge & the trainee resists. The worry for me is that, quite often, the underlying reason for the drug or alcohol use is depression, & further disempowerment could have dire consequences. Doctors with psychiatric conditions & particularly those who use drugs or alcohol describe feelings of shame at not meeting their own high standards & humiliation at being found out, & unfortunately, faced with discovery, there is the possibility of self-harm or suicide.


On the other hand, if the trainee can be brave enough to seek the help they need & to inform someone senior in the Trust & the Deanery, then this is likely to set them on a better footing. They can then be seen as someone who has taken ownership of their problem, & is doing something about it. If the trainee is known to be seeking & complying with treatment, & using appropriate support, this will also stand them in better stead with the GMC.


When discussing the trainee’s health with third parties, I myself, the Clinical Director, Medical Director, Postgraduate Dean & GMC must each provide the same standard of confidentiality as is afforded to patients. The trainee must not become the subject of corridor gossip or the matter discussed where you can be overheard.


The GMC guidance on confidentiality makes clear that expressed consent must be sought if details about the trainee’s health are disclosed to third parties, unless the disclosure is required by law or can be justified in the public interest. Such disclosures should be kept to a minimum. The trainee must have access to or copies of information exchanged about them & be informed about how information will be used. In practical terms this means that informing the Clinical Director & Medical Director that the trainee has a health issue, is possibly not well enough to work & has told you that he or she has been using drugs or alcohol, is in the public interest, but saying that the doctor is depressed & binge drinking is not, unless the trainee has consented to revealing this information.


The situation is slightly different if the trainee has been arrested for drunk driving or has been obtaining drugs fraudulently by self-prescribing. Both of these are illegal activities which should be disclosed to those in authority.


The GMC will need to be informed at an appropriate point if the doctor has a drug or alcohol problem. The psychiatrist from the drug & alcohol service is often best placed to do this, as they have a better understanding of the clinical picture.


Information about health can be disclosed to the GMC without the trainee’s consent, but the trainee must be informed as to what the GMC is told, even though their consent is not required. When a doctor is arrested or cautioned on a drink driving charge, or has been caught self-prescribing opiates or benzodiazepines by a pharmacist, the Police automatically inform the GMC.


So how do I pick my way through this minefield? I explain that the Medical Director, Clinical Director & GMC will need to know that the trainee has a health problem. Sometimes I find it useful to look together at the GMCs “Good Medical Practice” guidance. If the trainee is feeling brave enough, we draw up an e-mail or letter together, so that the trainee has control over what is said about his or her own health, or we ask the Clinical Director if we can meet urgently in private. When the trainee is too uncertain to inform the Clinical & Medical Director straight away, I ensure that they do not go back to clinical work & they “go off sick”. I arrange to meet them again in the next few days, to agree how we ensure those in authority are informed, & gently point out that, if they don’t turn up, I would still have to tell the Clinical & Medical Director, & Postgraduate Dean & would send them a copy of what I had said. I am lucky in that I can offer the opportunity of talking to someone else who has been in similar circumstances, as some of the many trainees whom I have managed & supported with psychological or stress-related illness, & some with drug or alcohol problems, are willing to share their own experiences.


Many doctors who abuse drugs or alcohol have started the habit as a coping strategy because of other difficulties. If treated fairly & with respect & empathy, many will address their difficulties & get back to safe, effective practice. So first impressions count; a thoughtfully conducted initial discussion can be the gateway the doctor needs to taking ownership of the problem & addressing their difficulties. Any lastly, these are difficult conversations, so do get support for yourself from someone with the skills to help you reflect confidentially about your performance.


Photo courtesy [http://www.generationnext.com.au/]

Doctors in Difficulty - Drugs and Alcohol

Sunday, 25 May 2014

Modular FCEM Revision Courses from Yorkshire Medical Education

This FCEM Revision Course has been specially designed to prepare candidates for the FCEM examination. It is a four day course and candidate can choose  to attend either Critical Appraisal, Management, Clinical or the whole course. The current course venue is in Halifax. Plenty of accommodation available within walking distance from the venue.



Download (PDF, 537KB)


Yorkshire Medical Education

Modular FCEM Revision Courses from Yorkshire Medical Education

Modular FCEM Revision Courses from Yorkshire Medical Education

This FCEM Revision Course has been specially designed to prepare candidates for the FCEM examination. It is a four day course and candidate can choose  to attend either Critical Appraisal, Management, Clinical or the whole course. The current course venue is in Halifax. Plenty of accommodation available within walking distance from the venue.



Download (PDF, 537KB)


Yorkshire Medical Education

Modular FCEM Revision Courses from Yorkshire Medical Education

Friday, 18 April 2014

Toxicity of Local Anaesthesia


Toxicity can be categorised as either local or systemic:


Local toxicity includes:



  • Infection

  • Haematoma

  • Local tissue damage e.g. intraneural injection

  • Unwanted nerve block

  • Necrosis through ischaemia from vasoconstrictor

  • Pneumothorax (in blocks around the neck or axilla)




Systemic toxicity:


Cardiovascular toxicity includes:



  • Cardiac depression – reduced BP, tachycardia, reduced cardiac output and acute cardiac dilatation

  • Peripheral vasodilatation, except cocaine–vasoconstriction


Respiratory toxicity includes:



  • Medullary depression

  • Bronchospasm from hypersensitivity – although extremely rare. Bronchospasm may also be induced in those with a psychogenic element to their illness such as in some asthma sufferers

  • Relaxation of bronchial musculature


With CNS toxicity:



  • The higher cortex tends to be excited whereas the mid-brain is depressed

  • Loss of inhibitory neurones leads to cortical excitability, e.g. fits or tremor

  • Depression of the mid-brain leads to respiratory collapse.


Non-specific toxicity includes



  • Methaemoglobinaemia (with prilocaine)

  • Hypersensitivity reactions:

    • The preservative methylparaben, used in multidose vials may cause such reactions

    • Reactions may be local (rash/dermatitis) or generalised

    • All reactions are unusual; true anaphylaxis is extremely rare and has only been reported in individual case reports. It has been suggested that patients who declare that they are ‘allergic’ should be skin tested, but this should only be considered in those who can describe a clear history of severe reaction. Many cases of ‘allergy’ involving collapse can be attributed to vasovagal faints, and mechanisms not related to hypersensitivity



  • Intravenous injections

  • Psychological reactions e.g. anxiety leading to vasovagal collapse





Toxicity of Local Anaesthesia

Tuesday, 15 April 2014

What Is the Difference Between Type I and Type II Errors?

The statistical practice of hypothesis testing is widespread not only in statistics, but also throughout the natural and social sciences. While we are conducting a hypothesis test there a couple of things that could go wrong. There are two kinds of errors, which by design cannot be avoided, and we must be aware that these errors exist. The errors are given the quite pedestrian names of type I and type II errors. What are type I and type II errors, and how we distinguish between them?


Hypothesis Testing


The process of hypothesis testing can seem to be quite varied with a multitude of test statistics. But the general process is the same. Hypothesis testing involves the statement of a null hypothesis, and the selection of a level of significance. The null hypothesis is either true or false, and represents the default claim for a treatment or procedure. For example, when examining the effectiveness of a drug, the null hypothesis would be that the drug has no effect on a disease.


After formulating the null hypothesis and choosing a level of significance, we acquire data through observation. Statistical calculations tell us whether or not we should reject the null hypothesis.


In an ideal world we would always reject the null hypothesis when it is false, and we would not reject the null hypothesis when it is indeed true. But there are two other scenarios that are possible, each of which will result in an error.


Type I Error


The first kind of error that is possible involves the rejection of a null hypothesis that is actually true. This kind of error is called a type I error, and is sometimes called an error of the first kind.


Type I errors are equivalent to false positives. Let’s go back to the example of a drug being used to treat a disease. If we reject the null hypothesis in this situation, then our claim is that the drug does in fact have some effect on a disease. But if the null hypothesis is true, then in reality the drug does not combat the disease at all. The drug is falsely claimed to have a positive effect on a disease.


Type I errors can be controlled. The value of alpha, which is related to the level of significance that we selected has a direct bearing on type I errors. Alpha is the maximum probability that we have a type I error. For a 95% confidence level, the value of alpha is 0.05. This means that there is a 5% probability that we will reject a true null hypothesis. In the long run, one out of every twenty hypothesis tests that we perform at this level will result in a type I error.


Type II Error


The other kind of error that is possible occurs when we do not reject a null hypothesis that is false. This sort of error is called a type II error, and is also referred to as an error of the second kind.


Type II errors are equivalent to false negatives. If we think back again to the scenario in which we are testing a drug, what would a type II error look like? A type II error would occur if we accepted that the drug had no effect on a disease, but in reality it did.


The probability of a type II error is given by the Greek letter beta. This number is related to the power or sensitivity of the hypothesis test, denoted by 1 – beta.


Type II errors can be avoided at the design stage of the study by power calculations that give an indication of how many subjects are required in the trial to minimise the risk of making type 2 error.


Type I and Type II errors


How to Avoid Errors


Type I and type II errors are part of the process of hypothesis testing. Although the errors cannot be completely eliminated, we can minimize one type of error.


Typically when we try to decrease the probability one type of error, the probability for the other type increases. We could decrease the value of alpha from 0.05 to 0.01, corresponding to a 99% level of confidence. However, if everything else remains the same, then the probability of a type II error will nearly always increase.


Many times the real world application of our hypothesis test will determine if we are more accepting of type I or type II errors. This will then be used when we design our statistical experiment.


Read more [About.com]

What Is the Difference Between Type I and Type II Errors?

Monday, 7 April 2014

Dermatology - Short Answer Questions (SAQ)

Question 1:


A 72 year old man presents to the emergency department complaining of an itchy rash.


Photo: Dermanet.com Photo: Dermanet.com



  1. Give 3 possible diagnoses

  2. Give 2 investigations that can be performed in the ED

  3. How would you manage this patient in the ED?

  4. What definitive treatment is required




Answer


Answer




A 72 year old man presents to the department complaining of an itchy rash.


1. Give 3 possible diagnoses



  • Bullous pemphigoid

  • Pemphigus

  • Dermatitis herpetiformis

  • VZV infection

  • Bullous erythema multiforme


2. Give 2 investigations that can be performed in the ED



  • Aspiration of bullous fluid for PCR ? HSV/VZV

  • Nikolsky’s sign – sliding of skin in pemphagus (not in pemphigoid)


(Definitive diagnosis involves biopsy for histology and immunoflurescence)


3. How would you manage this patient in the ED?



  • Anlagesia

  • Anti-histamine for itching

  • IV Fluids if dehydrated secondary to decreased intake (mucous memb involvement), fluid loss

  • Dermatology referral


4. What definitive management is required



  • Dermatology referral for biopsy and steroids/immunosuppression

  • Exclusion of malignancy in pemphagoid


Few more pictures



Bullous Pemphigoid




Bullous Pemphigoid




Bullous Pemphigoid



 







Question 2:


A sixty-five year old man has an itchy generalised rash. Your new FY2 doctor thinks the rash is scabies.


Scabies



  1. Describe the rash.                                                                                           (2 marks)

  2. What is the differential?                                                                              (2 marks)

  3. Why is this rash itchy?                                                                                  (1 mark)

  4. What is the treatment of choice?                                                              (1 mark)

  5. What two features in the history would suggest the diagnosis? (2 marks)

  6. What would you tell the patient?                                                             (2 marks)




Answer


Answer




A sixty-five year old man has an itchy generalised rash. Your new SHO thinks the rash is scabies.


1. Describe the rash.                                                                (2 marks)



  • Erythematous papular rash, with excoriations and evidence of burrows.

  • On the dorsum of the hand


 2. What is the differential?                                                      (2 marks)



  • Scabies


  • Pompholyx


3. Why is this rash itchy?                                                       (1 mark)



  • Allergic/ dermatitic reaction to faeces of scabies mite


 4.  What is the treatment of choice?                                        (1 mark)


Permethrin, Malathion


 



  1. What two features in the history would suggest the diagnosis? (2 marks)


Nightime itchy and after hot shower, Genital Itching


 


f. What would you tell the patient?                                        (2 marks)


Apply at bedtime. Wash off in the morning. Repeat in 1 week.


Treat all household contacts, Launder all bedlinen/clothes/towels 







 Question 3:


A 45 year old female presents with a wide spread itchy rash and sore mouth.


Pemphigus Oral Ulcer Pemphigus bullae



  1. What is pemphigus?

  2. What is pemhigoid?

  3. How would you differentiate between the two?

  4. How would you manage this patient in the ED?




Answer


Answer




3. A 45 year old female presents with a wide spread itchy rash and sore mouth.


1. What is pemphigus?



  • Autoimmune disease with deposition of Ig G within epidermis leading to epidermal separation and bullae formation.  Commonly  begins in middle age, on trunk, face, groin and axillae.  Involvement of mucous membranes common, especially oral cavity.


2. What is pemhigoid?



  •  Autoimmune disease with deposition of IgG and C3 on basement membrane with sub-epidermal bullae formation.  It is pruritic.  Small association with malignancy, increased incidence in 70s.  Usually seen on lower limbs especially in inner aspect thigh, then trunk.  mucous membrane involvement less than pemphigus vulgaris


3. How would you differentiate between the 2?



  •  Skin biopsy for histology and immunofluorescence.


4. How would you manage this patient in the ED?



  • Oral or IV analgesia

  • Anti-histamine to decrease pruritis

  • IV access and fluids if dehydrated due to oral involvement and fluid loss

  • Dermatology referral.






Question 4:


An 8 year old boy presents with pain in the wrists, elbow and knee.  He has a sore throat 3 weeks ago.  Temp 37.8C, other observations normal.


Rheumatic Fever: Erythema Marginatum


sinus-bradycardia


 



  1. Outline the principles of the Jones criteria in the diagnosis of rheumatic fever (3)

  2. Which four features does this child have (2)

  3. Which other investigation is required? (1)

  4. What are the principles of the treatment of rheumatic fever? (4)




Answer


Answer




An 8 year old boy presents with pain in the wrists, elbow and knee.  He has a sore throat 3 weeks ago.  Temp 37.8C, other observations normal


1. Outline the principles of the Jones criteria in the diagnosis of rheumatic fever (3)



  • Diagnosis of rheumatic fever using the Jones criteria requires evidence of recent infection with Group A beta haemolytic streptococci and either 2 major diagnostic criteria or 1 major and 2 minor criteria.


2. Which four features does this child have (2)



  • Elevated temperature

  • Prolongation of PR interval

  • Arthritis of several joints

  • Erythema marginatum


3. Which other investigation is required? (1)



  • ASO titre


4. What are the principles of the treatment of rheumatic fever? (4)



  • Bed rest

  • Analgesia and anti-pyretic

  • Aspirin

  • Use of steroids if evidence of carditis

  • Penicillin in treatment dose and prophylactically for 5 years if no carditis and life long if carditis

  • Investigation and treatment of heart valve disease

  • Splints for arthritis, pain relief


More info


Jones Criteria for Rheumatic Fever







Question 5:


A 22 year old female presents with a painful rash to her legs.


Erythema Nodosum


 



  1. What is the diagnosis?

  2. Give four causes of this rash?




Answer


Answer




A 22 year old female presents with a painful rash to her legs.


1. What is the diagnosis?



  •  Erythema nodosum


2. Give four causes of this rash?



  •  Infective:  Tuberculosis, Group A streptococcal throat infections (Scarlet fever, Rheumatic fever), salmonella gastroenteritis, campylobacter colitis, Lymphogranuloma Venereum

  • Malignancy: Hodgkin’s and Non Hodgkins lymphoma

  • Inflammatory bowel disease eg Crohn’s, Ulcerative colitis

  • Drugs:  Penicillin, sulphonamides, sulphonylurea, tetracyclines, OCP

  • Sarcoidosis


More pictures 



Photo: Patient.co.uk




Photo: Life In The Fast Lane








Question 6:


42 year old male presents with a rash


erythema multiforme


 



  1. Describe the rash.  What is the diagnosis?

  2. Give 6 causes of this condition.


He returns one week later having deteriorated.  Temp 38.3C


Steven Johnson Syndrome     3. What is the diagnosis?


4. How would you manage the patient in the ED.  Assume patent airway and adequate ventilation.




Answer


Answer




A 42 year old male presents with a rash.


1. Describe the rash.  What is the diagnosis?



  • Multiple macular papular lesions, target shaped suggestive of erythema multiforme


2. Give six causes of this condition.



  • Infection: HSV, HIV, Hep B, Mumps, EBV, Beta haemolytic streptococci, rickettsia, pssitacosis

  • Drugs:  penicillin, sulphonylurea, barbiturates, salicylates, anti-malarials

  • Sarcoidosis

  • SLE

  • PAN

  • Wergners granulomatosis

  • Idiopathic

  • Malignancy eg multiple myeloma


He returns 1 week later having deteriorated.  Temp 38.3C


3. What is the diagnosis?



  • Stevens-Johnson syndrome


4. How would you manage the patient in the ED.  Assume patent airway, adequate ventilation and oxygen in situ.



  • IV access, IV fluids as necessary to keep pulse <100bpm and U/O >0.5ml/kg/hr

  • Intra venous analgesia eg morphine titrated to effect

  • Assess skin lesions, cover denuded areas with cling-film, non-adherent dressing

  • Refer to burns unit






 


More Coming Soon



Dermatology - Short Answer Questions (SAQ)

Sunday, 6 April 2014

Critical Appraisal Practice Question 1

Total marks: 23
Time allowed: 90mins


Paper: High-sensitivity troponin T for early rule-out of myocardial infarction in recent onset chest pain


Question 1


Provide a no more than 200 word summary of this paper. Only the first 200 words will be considered and short bullet points are acceptable. [6 marks]


Question 2


Identify 4 weaknesses in the study design. For each one, suggest how that weakness could have been overcome to make the study design more robust. [8 marks]


Question 3


Give 2 examples of how the recruitment process is sub-optimal. [2 marks]


Question 4


The study uses sensitivity/specificity and positive/negative predictive values to depict the performance of high sensitivity troponin. Which performance test from the above is most useful in advising a patient about their chances of having a myocardial infarction? Explain your reasoning. [2 marks]


Question 5


Define sensitivity and specificity. [2 marks]


Question 6


Would the findings in this paper lead you to alter the practice in your ED? Explain your reasoning. [3 marks]


 


Click here for answers

Critical Appraisal Practice Question 1

How your Emergency Department is paid?


Emergency Departments (EDs) in England provide an essential service for our communities. EDs are under increasing strain as a result of chronic under-resourcing, rising demand, increasing age and acuity of patients, crowding, and higher expectations.


To provide high quality care, EDs need to be properly resourced so that they can meet the demand they face in a safe and effective way.


To drive further improvements in the quality of care, the financial framework should incentivise best practice within EDs, along the same lines that the Best Practice Tariffs operate in other spheres of medical practice.


A paradigm shift is needed. EDs are generally resourced to cope, rather than to deliver safe, high quality care. The accepted image of EDs, reinforced by popular culture, is of fast-paced and even chaotic departments, where rushed staff struggle to cope in the face of adversity. This image, and the underpinning reality, should not be accepted:



  • EDs see the most critically ill, vulnerable, and risky patients: 24 hours a day, 7 days a week, all year round.

  • Patients have as much a right to be treated in a calm, orderly environment, by staff with the time to care, as they do, for example, in an operating theatre or intensive care unit.

  • Staff have a right to offer appropriately paced care to their patients in properly equipped clinical areas, within a workforce that is adequate to deal with the demand faced. The current intensity of ED working, combined with the shift patterns needed to sustain a 24/7 service in the UK, is thought to be behind an emerging crisis in recruitment and retention of staff. This crisis will have a negative impact on patients, and will be more expensive to fix later, than now


The current funding system for Emergency Care is not working:



  • Tariffs do not accurately or adequately reimburse EDs to provide patients with the care they need. Hospitals are therefore forced to either regard EDs as “loss leaders,” and to fund them in a discretionary way using resources veered from elsewhere in the system, or leave them significantly underfunded.

  • Tariffs do not incentivise best practice or admission avoidance

  • Block or managed contracts, where reimbursement for activity is effectively capped, are common


EDs have the ability to function as the powerhouse for effective emergency care by gate-keeping access to hospitals, and by ensuring that patients are diagnosed early, treated correctly from the outset, and sent to the right place for ongoing care. Failure to resource EDs adequately is a waste of a valuable asset. Supporting EDs to do what they should be doing is the only way to deliver round-the-clock, safe, effective, front-loaded care, to our patients. It would also provide true value for money.


There are a few important documents I found in the college and DOH website. Individual links to the pages given below.


Main College resource for payment 


Payment by Results in the NHS: tariff for 2012 to 2013


Payment by Results in the NHS: tariff for 2013 to 2014


The King’s Fund. Payment by Results: How can payment systems help to deliver better care.


 


With input from CEM and DOH website.




How your Emergency Department is paid?