Friday, 18 April 2014

Toxicity of Local Anaesthesia


Toxicity can be categorised as either local or systemic:


Local toxicity includes:



  • Infection

  • Haematoma

  • Local tissue damage e.g. intraneural injection

  • Unwanted nerve block

  • Necrosis through ischaemia from vasoconstrictor

  • Pneumothorax (in blocks around the neck or axilla)




Systemic toxicity:


Cardiovascular toxicity includes:



  • Cardiac depression – reduced BP, tachycardia, reduced cardiac output and acute cardiac dilatation

  • Peripheral vasodilatation, except cocaine–vasoconstriction


Respiratory toxicity includes:



  • Medullary depression

  • Bronchospasm from hypersensitivity – although extremely rare. Bronchospasm may also be induced in those with a psychogenic element to their illness such as in some asthma sufferers

  • Relaxation of bronchial musculature


With CNS toxicity:



  • The higher cortex tends to be excited whereas the mid-brain is depressed

  • Loss of inhibitory neurones leads to cortical excitability, e.g. fits or tremor

  • Depression of the mid-brain leads to respiratory collapse.


Non-specific toxicity includes



  • Methaemoglobinaemia (with prilocaine)

  • Hypersensitivity reactions:

    • The preservative methylparaben, used in multidose vials may cause such reactions

    • Reactions may be local (rash/dermatitis) or generalised

    • All reactions are unusual; true anaphylaxis is extremely rare and has only been reported in individual case reports. It has been suggested that patients who declare that they are ‘allergic’ should be skin tested, but this should only be considered in those who can describe a clear history of severe reaction. Many cases of ‘allergy’ involving collapse can be attributed to vasovagal faints, and mechanisms not related to hypersensitivity



  • Intravenous injections

  • Psychological reactions e.g. anxiety leading to vasovagal collapse





Toxicity of Local Anaesthesia

Tuesday, 15 April 2014

What Is the Difference Between Type I and Type II Errors?

The statistical practice of hypothesis testing is widespread not only in statistics, but also throughout the natural and social sciences. While we are conducting a hypothesis test there a couple of things that could go wrong. There are two kinds of errors, which by design cannot be avoided, and we must be aware that these errors exist. The errors are given the quite pedestrian names of type I and type II errors. What are type I and type II errors, and how we distinguish between them?


Hypothesis Testing


The process of hypothesis testing can seem to be quite varied with a multitude of test statistics. But the general process is the same. Hypothesis testing involves the statement of a null hypothesis, and the selection of a level of significance. The null hypothesis is either true or false, and represents the default claim for a treatment or procedure. For example, when examining the effectiveness of a drug, the null hypothesis would be that the drug has no effect on a disease.


After formulating the null hypothesis and choosing a level of significance, we acquire data through observation. Statistical calculations tell us whether or not we should reject the null hypothesis.


In an ideal world we would always reject the null hypothesis when it is false, and we would not reject the null hypothesis when it is indeed true. But there are two other scenarios that are possible, each of which will result in an error.


Type I Error


The first kind of error that is possible involves the rejection of a null hypothesis that is actually true. This kind of error is called a type I error, and is sometimes called an error of the first kind.


Type I errors are equivalent to false positives. Let’s go back to the example of a drug being used to treat a disease. If we reject the null hypothesis in this situation, then our claim is that the drug does in fact have some effect on a disease. But if the null hypothesis is true, then in reality the drug does not combat the disease at all. The drug is falsely claimed to have a positive effect on a disease.


Type I errors can be controlled. The value of alpha, which is related to the level of significance that we selected has a direct bearing on type I errors. Alpha is the maximum probability that we have a type I error. For a 95% confidence level, the value of alpha is 0.05. This means that there is a 5% probability that we will reject a true null hypothesis. In the long run, one out of every twenty hypothesis tests that we perform at this level will result in a type I error.


Type II Error


The other kind of error that is possible occurs when we do not reject a null hypothesis that is false. This sort of error is called a type II error, and is also referred to as an error of the second kind.


Type II errors are equivalent to false negatives. If we think back again to the scenario in which we are testing a drug, what would a type II error look like? A type II error would occur if we accepted that the drug had no effect on a disease, but in reality it did.


The probability of a type II error is given by the Greek letter beta. This number is related to the power or sensitivity of the hypothesis test, denoted by 1 – beta.


Type II errors can be avoided at the design stage of the study by power calculations that give an indication of how many subjects are required in the trial to minimise the risk of making type 2 error.


Type I and Type II errors


How to Avoid Errors


Type I and type II errors are part of the process of hypothesis testing. Although the errors cannot be completely eliminated, we can minimize one type of error.


Typically when we try to decrease the probability one type of error, the probability for the other type increases. We could decrease the value of alpha from 0.05 to 0.01, corresponding to a 99% level of confidence. However, if everything else remains the same, then the probability of a type II error will nearly always increase.


Many times the real world application of our hypothesis test will determine if we are more accepting of type I or type II errors. This will then be used when we design our statistical experiment.


Read more [About.com]

What Is the Difference Between Type I and Type II Errors?

Monday, 7 April 2014

Dermatology - Short Answer Questions (SAQ)

Question 1:


A 72 year old man presents to the emergency department complaining of an itchy rash.


Photo: Dermanet.com Photo: Dermanet.com



  1. Give 3 possible diagnoses

  2. Give 2 investigations that can be performed in the ED

  3. How would you manage this patient in the ED?

  4. What definitive treatment is required




Answer


Answer




A 72 year old man presents to the department complaining of an itchy rash.


1. Give 3 possible diagnoses



  • Bullous pemphigoid

  • Pemphigus

  • Dermatitis herpetiformis

  • VZV infection

  • Bullous erythema multiforme


2. Give 2 investigations that can be performed in the ED



  • Aspiration of bullous fluid for PCR ? HSV/VZV

  • Nikolsky’s sign – sliding of skin in pemphagus (not in pemphigoid)


(Definitive diagnosis involves biopsy for histology and immunoflurescence)


3. How would you manage this patient in the ED?



  • Anlagesia

  • Anti-histamine for itching

  • IV Fluids if dehydrated secondary to decreased intake (mucous memb involvement), fluid loss

  • Dermatology referral


4. What definitive management is required



  • Dermatology referral for biopsy and steroids/immunosuppression

  • Exclusion of malignancy in pemphagoid


Few more pictures



Bullous Pemphigoid




Bullous Pemphigoid




Bullous Pemphigoid



 







Question 2:


A sixty-five year old man has an itchy generalised rash. Your new FY2 doctor thinks the rash is scabies.


Scabies



  1. Describe the rash.                                                                                           (2 marks)

  2. What is the differential?                                                                              (2 marks)

  3. Why is this rash itchy?                                                                                  (1 mark)

  4. What is the treatment of choice?                                                              (1 mark)

  5. What two features in the history would suggest the diagnosis? (2 marks)

  6. What would you tell the patient?                                                             (2 marks)




Answer


Answer




A sixty-five year old man has an itchy generalised rash. Your new SHO thinks the rash is scabies.


1. Describe the rash.                                                                (2 marks)



  • Erythematous papular rash, with excoriations and evidence of burrows.

  • On the dorsum of the hand


 2. What is the differential?                                                      (2 marks)



  • Scabies


  • Pompholyx


3. Why is this rash itchy?                                                       (1 mark)



  • Allergic/ dermatitic reaction to faeces of scabies mite


 4.  What is the treatment of choice?                                        (1 mark)


Permethrin, Malathion


 



  1. What two features in the history would suggest the diagnosis? (2 marks)


Nightime itchy and after hot shower, Genital Itching


 


f. What would you tell the patient?                                        (2 marks)


Apply at bedtime. Wash off in the morning. Repeat in 1 week.


Treat all household contacts, Launder all bedlinen/clothes/towels 







 Question 3:


A 45 year old female presents with a wide spread itchy rash and sore mouth.


Pemphigus Oral Ulcer Pemphigus bullae



  1. What is pemphigus?

  2. What is pemhigoid?

  3. How would you differentiate between the two?

  4. How would you manage this patient in the ED?




Answer


Answer




3. A 45 year old female presents with a wide spread itchy rash and sore mouth.


1. What is pemphigus?



  • Autoimmune disease with deposition of Ig G within epidermis leading to epidermal separation and bullae formation.  Commonly  begins in middle age, on trunk, face, groin and axillae.  Involvement of mucous membranes common, especially oral cavity.


2. What is pemhigoid?



  •  Autoimmune disease with deposition of IgG and C3 on basement membrane with sub-epidermal bullae formation.  It is pruritic.  Small association with malignancy, increased incidence in 70s.  Usually seen on lower limbs especially in inner aspect thigh, then trunk.  mucous membrane involvement less than pemphigus vulgaris


3. How would you differentiate between the 2?



  •  Skin biopsy for histology and immunofluorescence.


4. How would you manage this patient in the ED?



  • Oral or IV analgesia

  • Anti-histamine to decrease pruritis

  • IV access and fluids if dehydrated due to oral involvement and fluid loss

  • Dermatology referral.






Question 4:


An 8 year old boy presents with pain in the wrists, elbow and knee.  He has a sore throat 3 weeks ago.  Temp 37.8C, other observations normal.


Rheumatic Fever: Erythema Marginatum


sinus-bradycardia


 



  1. Outline the principles of the Jones criteria in the diagnosis of rheumatic fever (3)

  2. Which four features does this child have (2)

  3. Which other investigation is required? (1)

  4. What are the principles of the treatment of rheumatic fever? (4)




Answer


Answer




An 8 year old boy presents with pain in the wrists, elbow and knee.  He has a sore throat 3 weeks ago.  Temp 37.8C, other observations normal


1. Outline the principles of the Jones criteria in the diagnosis of rheumatic fever (3)



  • Diagnosis of rheumatic fever using the Jones criteria requires evidence of recent infection with Group A beta haemolytic streptococci and either 2 major diagnostic criteria or 1 major and 2 minor criteria.


2. Which four features does this child have (2)



  • Elevated temperature

  • Prolongation of PR interval

  • Arthritis of several joints

  • Erythema marginatum


3. Which other investigation is required? (1)



  • ASO titre


4. What are the principles of the treatment of rheumatic fever? (4)



  • Bed rest

  • Analgesia and anti-pyretic

  • Aspirin

  • Use of steroids if evidence of carditis

  • Penicillin in treatment dose and prophylactically for 5 years if no carditis and life long if carditis

  • Investigation and treatment of heart valve disease

  • Splints for arthritis, pain relief


More info


Jones Criteria for Rheumatic Fever







Question 5:


A 22 year old female presents with a painful rash to her legs.


Erythema Nodosum


 



  1. What is the diagnosis?

  2. Give four causes of this rash?




Answer


Answer




A 22 year old female presents with a painful rash to her legs.


1. What is the diagnosis?



  •  Erythema nodosum


2. Give four causes of this rash?



  •  Infective:  Tuberculosis, Group A streptococcal throat infections (Scarlet fever, Rheumatic fever), salmonella gastroenteritis, campylobacter colitis, Lymphogranuloma Venereum

  • Malignancy: Hodgkin’s and Non Hodgkins lymphoma

  • Inflammatory bowel disease eg Crohn’s, Ulcerative colitis

  • Drugs:  Penicillin, sulphonamides, sulphonylurea, tetracyclines, OCP

  • Sarcoidosis


More pictures 



Photo: Patient.co.uk




Photo: Life In The Fast Lane








Question 6:


42 year old male presents with a rash


erythema multiforme


 



  1. Describe the rash.  What is the diagnosis?

  2. Give 6 causes of this condition.


He returns one week later having deteriorated.  Temp 38.3C


Steven Johnson Syndrome     3. What is the diagnosis?


4. How would you manage the patient in the ED.  Assume patent airway and adequate ventilation.




Answer


Answer




A 42 year old male presents with a rash.


1. Describe the rash.  What is the diagnosis?



  • Multiple macular papular lesions, target shaped suggestive of erythema multiforme


2. Give six causes of this condition.



  • Infection: HSV, HIV, Hep B, Mumps, EBV, Beta haemolytic streptococci, rickettsia, pssitacosis

  • Drugs:  penicillin, sulphonylurea, barbiturates, salicylates, anti-malarials

  • Sarcoidosis

  • SLE

  • PAN

  • Wergners granulomatosis

  • Idiopathic

  • Malignancy eg multiple myeloma


He returns 1 week later having deteriorated.  Temp 38.3C


3. What is the diagnosis?



  • Stevens-Johnson syndrome


4. How would you manage the patient in the ED.  Assume patent airway, adequate ventilation and oxygen in situ.



  • IV access, IV fluids as necessary to keep pulse <100bpm and U/O >0.5ml/kg/hr

  • Intra venous analgesia eg morphine titrated to effect

  • Assess skin lesions, cover denuded areas with cling-film, non-adherent dressing

  • Refer to burns unit






 


More Coming Soon



Dermatology - Short Answer Questions (SAQ)

Sunday, 6 April 2014

Critical Appraisal Practice Question 1

Total marks: 23
Time allowed: 90mins


Paper: High-sensitivity troponin T for early rule-out of myocardial infarction in recent onset chest pain


Question 1


Provide a no more than 200 word summary of this paper. Only the first 200 words will be considered and short bullet points are acceptable. [6 marks]


Question 2


Identify 4 weaknesses in the study design. For each one, suggest how that weakness could have been overcome to make the study design more robust. [8 marks]


Question 3


Give 2 examples of how the recruitment process is sub-optimal. [2 marks]


Question 4


The study uses sensitivity/specificity and positive/negative predictive values to depict the performance of high sensitivity troponin. Which performance test from the above is most useful in advising a patient about their chances of having a myocardial infarction? Explain your reasoning. [2 marks]


Question 5


Define sensitivity and specificity. [2 marks]


Question 6


Would the findings in this paper lead you to alter the practice in your ED? Explain your reasoning. [3 marks]


 


Click here for answers

Critical Appraisal Practice Question 1

How your Emergency Department is paid?


Emergency Departments (EDs) in England provide an essential service for our communities. EDs are under increasing strain as a result of chronic under-resourcing, rising demand, increasing age and acuity of patients, crowding, and higher expectations.


To provide high quality care, EDs need to be properly resourced so that they can meet the demand they face in a safe and effective way.


To drive further improvements in the quality of care, the financial framework should incentivise best practice within EDs, along the same lines that the Best Practice Tariffs operate in other spheres of medical practice.


A paradigm shift is needed. EDs are generally resourced to cope, rather than to deliver safe, high quality care. The accepted image of EDs, reinforced by popular culture, is of fast-paced and even chaotic departments, where rushed staff struggle to cope in the face of adversity. This image, and the underpinning reality, should not be accepted:



  • EDs see the most critically ill, vulnerable, and risky patients: 24 hours a day, 7 days a week, all year round.

  • Patients have as much a right to be treated in a calm, orderly environment, by staff with the time to care, as they do, for example, in an operating theatre or intensive care unit.

  • Staff have a right to offer appropriately paced care to their patients in properly equipped clinical areas, within a workforce that is adequate to deal with the demand faced. The current intensity of ED working, combined with the shift patterns needed to sustain a 24/7 service in the UK, is thought to be behind an emerging crisis in recruitment and retention of staff. This crisis will have a negative impact on patients, and will be more expensive to fix later, than now


The current funding system for Emergency Care is not working:



  • Tariffs do not accurately or adequately reimburse EDs to provide patients with the care they need. Hospitals are therefore forced to either regard EDs as “loss leaders,” and to fund them in a discretionary way using resources veered from elsewhere in the system, or leave them significantly underfunded.

  • Tariffs do not incentivise best practice or admission avoidance

  • Block or managed contracts, where reimbursement for activity is effectively capped, are common


EDs have the ability to function as the powerhouse for effective emergency care by gate-keeping access to hospitals, and by ensuring that patients are diagnosed early, treated correctly from the outset, and sent to the right place for ongoing care. Failure to resource EDs adequately is a waste of a valuable asset. Supporting EDs to do what they should be doing is the only way to deliver round-the-clock, safe, effective, front-loaded care, to our patients. It would also provide true value for money.


There are a few important documents I found in the college and DOH website. Individual links to the pages given below.


Main College resource for payment 


Payment by Results in the NHS: tariff for 2012 to 2013


Payment by Results in the NHS: tariff for 2013 to 2014


The King’s Fund. Payment by Results: How can payment systems help to deliver better care.


 


With input from CEM and DOH website.




How your Emergency Department is paid?

HAP9 Dental Emergencies

 


CEM HAP9 Dental Emergencies


1. Dental Infections


Dental infections usually arise from pulpitis and associated necrotic dental pulp that initially begins on the tooth’s surface as dental caries. The infection may remain localised or quickly spread through various fascial planes.


Odontogenic infection may be primary or secondary to periodontal, pericoronal, traumatic, or postsurgical infections. A typical odontogenic infection originates from caries, which decalcify the protective enamel.


Once enamel is dissolved, the infectious caries can travel through the dentinal tubules and gain access to the pulp. In the pulp, the infection may develop a track through the root apex and burrow through the medullar cavity of the mandible or maxilla. The infection then may perforate the cortical plates and drain into the superficial tissues of the oral cavity or track into deeper fascial planes. If the infection does not drain, it will remain localised and develop into a periapical or periodontal abscess.


Serotypes of Streptococcus mutans (cricetus, rattus, ferus, sobrinus) are primarily responsible for causing oral disease.[1] Although lactobacilli are not primary causes, they are progressive agents of caries because of their great acid-producing capacity.


Dental caries is not a life-threatening disease; however, if an odontogenic infection spreads through fascial planes, patients are at risk for sepsis, airway compromise (eg, Ludwig angina, retropharyngeal abscess).


Symptoms and Signs:


Patients with superficial dental infections may complain of localised pain, oedema, and sensitivity to temperature and air. Patients with deep infections or abscesses that spread along the fascial planes may complain of fever and difficulty swallowing, breathing, and opening the mouth.


Local infections

Typically, the tooth is grossly decayed, although it may be normal with cavitated lesions that may have a surrounding chalky demineralised area and swollen erythematous gingiva. Affected teeth generally are tender to percussion and temperature.


Mandibular infections

Submental space infection is characterised by a firm midline swelling beneath the chin and is due to infection from the mandibular incisors.


Sublingual space infection is indicated by swelling of the mouth’s floor with possible tongue elevation, pain, and dysphagia due to anterior mandibular tooth infection.


Submandibular space infection is identified by swelling of the submandibular triangle of the neck around the angle of the jaw. Tenderness to palpation and mild trismus is typical. Infection is caused by mandibular molar infections.


Retropharyngeal space infection is identified by stiff neck, sore throat, dysphagia, hot potato voice, and stridor with possible spread to the mediastinum. These infections are due to infections of the molars.


With spread to the deeper areas of the neck, signs and symptoms of vagal injury, Horner syndrome, and lower cranial nerve injury may be seen.


Infection in this space is more common in children younger than 4 years.


Etiology usually is due to an upper respiratory infection (URI) with spread to retropharyngeal lymph nodes.


Because of high potential for spread to the mediastinum, retropharyngeal space infection is a serious fascial infection.


Ludwig angina (name derived from sensations of choking and suffocation) is characterised by brawny board like swelling from a rapidly spreading cellulitis of the sublingual, submental, and submandibular spaces with elevation and oedema of the tongue, drooling, and airway obstruction.The condition is odontogenic in 90% of cases and arises from the second and third mandibular molars in 75% of cases.


Middle and lateral facial oedema

Buccal space infection is typically indicated by cheek oedema and is due to infection of posterior teeth, usually premolar or molar.


Masticator space infection always presents with trismus manifestation and is due to infection of the third molar of the mandible. Large abscesses may track toward the posterior parapharyngeal spaces. Patients may require fiberoptic nasoendotracheal intubation while awake.


Canine space infection is evidenced by anterior cheek swelling with loss of the nasolabial fold and possible extension to the infraorbital region. This is due to infection of the maxillary canine and potentially may spread to the cavernous sinus.


Gingivitis

Acute narcotising ulcerative gingivitis (Vincent angina, trench mouth) is a condition in which patients present with edematous erythematous gingiva with ulcerated, interdental papillae covered with a gray pseudomembrane.


Patients may have fever and lymphadenopathy and may complain of metallic taste. The condition is caused by invasive fusiform bacteria and spirochetes but is not contagious.


Causative agents:


Serotypes of S mutans are thought to cause initial caries infection. Infections through the fascial planes usually are polymicrobial (average 4-6 organisms). Dominant isolates are anaerobic bacteria.

Anaerobes (75%) – Peptostreptococci, Bacteroides and Prevotella organisms, and Fusobacterium nucleatum

Aerobes (25%) – Alpha-hemolytic streptococci


Investigations:


In dental infection, a FBC count with differential is not mandatory, but a large outpouring of immature granulocytes may indicate the severity of the infection.

Blood cultures in patients who are toxic may help guide management if the course is prolonged.


X-rays to identify involvement of tooth and surrounding bone in the infectious process.


Treatment:


Analgesics and antibiotics may be given if the patient is not systemically ill and appears to have a simple localised odontogenic infection or abscess.

I&D may be required if a periapical or periodontal abscess is identified – Maxfax referral

In deep fascial infections of the neck, an airways assessment might be necessary before the Maxfax referral. If they are systemically unwell, prompt use of IV antibiotics and other measures necessary for a septic patient.


 


2. Dental Fractures























































































TypesClinical FeaturesED TreatmentReferral

InfractionTooth Infarction
● An incomplete fracture of the enamel without loss of tooth structure.● Not tender. If tenderness is observed evaluate the tooth for a possible luxation injury or a root fracture.Reassurance Own dentist

Enamel Fracture

Enamel fracture


● A complete fracture of the enamel.● Loss of enamel. No visible sign of exposed dentin.

● Not tender. If tenderness is observed evaluate the tooth for a possible luxation or root fracture injury.


● Normal mobility.


ReassuranceDentist treatment

● If the tooth fragment is available, it can be bonded to the tooth.


Own dentist or Emergency Dentist

Enamel-Dentin-FractureEnamel-Dentin-Fracture
● A fracture confined to enamel and dentin with loss of tooth structure, but not exposing the pulp.● Percussion test: not tender. If tenderness is observed, evaluate the tooth for possible luxation or root fracture injury.

● Normal mobility.


ReassuranceDentist treatment

● If the tooth fragment is available, it can be bonded to the tooth.


Own Dentist or Emergency Dentist

Enamel-Dentin-Pulp-FractureEnamel-Dentin-Pulp-Fracture
● A fracture involving enamel and dentin with loss of tooth structure and exposure of the pulp.● Normal mobility

● Percussion test: not tender. If tenderness is observed, evaluate for possible luxation or root fracture injury.


● Exposed pulp sensitive to stimuli.


AnalgesiaReassuranceDentist

Crown Root Fracture without Pulp ExposureCrown Root Fracture without Pulp Exposure
● A fracture involving enamel, dentin and cementum with loss of tooth structure, but not exposing the pulp.● Crown fracture extending below gingival margin.

● Percussion test: Tender.


● Coronal fragment mobile.


● As an emergency treatment a temporary stabilisation of the loose segment to adjacent teeth can be performed until a definitive treatment plan is made.Dentist or Emergency Dentist
 Root FractureRoot Fracture
● The coronal segment may be mobile and may be displaced.● The tooth may be tender to percussion.

● Bleeding from the gingival sulcus may be noted.


● Sensibility testing may give negative results initially, indicating transient or permanent neural damage.


● Reposition, if displaced, the coronal segment of the tooth as soon as possible.

● Check position radiographically.


● Stabilise the tooth with a temporary splint


● Referral to Maxfax or Emergency Dentist


Maxfax or Emergency Dentist
 Alveolar FractureAlveolar Fracture
● The fracture involves the alveolar bone and may extend to adjacent bone.● Segment mobility and dislocation with several teeth moving together are common findings.

● An occlusal change due to misalignment of the fractured


● Reposition any displaced segment and then temporary splint.Urgent Maxfax referral
 ConcussionConcussion
● The tooth is tender to touch or tapping; it has not been displaced and does not have increased mobility.Reassurance Dentist check up
 Subluxation Subluxation
● The tooth is tender to touch or tapping and has increased mobility; it has not been displaced.● Bleeding from gingiva may be noted.ReassuranceMight need a splint for few weeks through dentist.Dentist

Extrusive LuxationExtrusive Luxation
● The tooth appears elongated and is excessively mobile.● Reposition the tooth by gently re-inserting it into the tooth socket.

● Stabilise the tooth for using a temporary splint.


Dentist

Lateral LuxationLateral Luxation
● The tooth is displaced, usually in a palatal/lingual or labial direction.● It will be immobile

● Fracture of the alveolar process present.


● Reposition the tooth digitally or with forceps to disengage it from its bony lock and gently reposition it into its original location.● Temporary splint if it is loose.Maxfax

Intrusive LuxationIntrusive Luxation
● The tooth is displaced axially into the alveolar bone.● It is immobile● Primary teeth: to allow spontaneous re-eruption except when displaced into the developing successor. Extraction is indicated when the apex is displaced toward the permanent tooth germ.● Permanent teeth: to reposition passively (allowing re-eruption to its preinjury position), actively (repositioning with traction), or surgically and then to stabilise the tooth with a splint for up to 4 weeks in its anatomically correct positionMaxfax / Dentist

Avulsion

Avulsion-lg


● Complete displacement of tooth out of socket.● Primary teeth: to prevent further injury to the developing successor. Avulsed primary teeth should not be replanted because of the potential for subsequent damage to developing permanent tooth germs.● Permanent teeth: to replant as soon as possible and then to stabilise the replanted tooth in its anatomically correct location to optimise healing of the periodontal ligament and neuromuscular supply while maintaining aesthetic and functional integrity.If replantation of tooth is not possible in the ED, it should be kept in saline, milk or inside of patients mouth moistened by saliva.Maxfax

 


With input from emedicine, Oxford Handbook of EM, Guidelines on Management of Acute Dental Trauma, Dental Trauma Guidelines



HAP9 Dental Emergencies

HMP 1: Anaphylaxis: Rapid recognition and Treatment

INTRODUCTION — Anaphylaxis is a potentially fatal disorder. The rate of occurrence is increasing in industrialised countries. Anaphylaxis is not always recognised as such because it can mimic other conditions and is variable in its presentation.


This topic will review the recognition and treatment of anaphylaxis by healthcare professionals working in emergency department (ED.


DEFINITION AND DIAGNOSIS — Anaphylaxis is defined as a serious allergic or hypersensitivity reaction that is rapid in onset and may cause death. The diagnosis of anaphylaxis is based primarily upon clinical symptoms and signs, as well as a detailed description of the acute episode, including antecedent activities and events occurring within the preceding minutes to hours.


Anaphylaxis is under recognised and undertreated. This may partly be due to failure to appreciate that it can present without obvious skin symptoms and signs and without shock. Anaphylaxis is a much broader syndrome than “anaphylactic shock,” and the goal of therapy should be early recognition and treatment with adrenaline to prevent progression to life-threatening respiratory and/or cardiovascular symptoms and signs, including shock.


Diagnostic criteria — Diagnostic criteria for anaphylaxis were published by a multidisciplinary group of experts in 2005 and 2006. These criteria were intended to help clinicians recognise the full spectrum of symptoms and signs that comprise anaphylaxis.


There are three diagnostic criteria, each reflecting a different clinical presentation of anaphylaxis. Anaphylaxis is highly likely when any ONE of the following three criteria is fulfilled:


Criterion 1 — Acute onset of an illness (minutes to several hours) involving the skin, mucosal tissue, or both (eg, generalized hives, pruritus or flushing, swollen lips-tongue-uvula) and at least one of the following:



  • Respiratory compromise (eg, dyspnea, wheeze-bronchospasm, stridor, reduced peak expiratory flow, hypoxemia).


OR



  • Reduced blood pressure (BP) or associated symptoms and signs of end-organ dysfunction (eg, hypotonia [collapse] syncope, incontinence). (See ‘Criterion 3′ below.)


Note: Skin symptoms and signs are present in up to 90 percent of anaphylactic episodes. This criterion will therefore frequently be helpful in making the diagnosis.


Criterion 2 — Two or more of the following that occur rapidly after exposure to a LIKELY allergen for that patient (minutes to several hours):



  • Involvement of the skin-mucosal tissue (eg, generalized hives, itch-flush, swollen lips-tongue-uvula).

  • Respiratory compromise (eg, dyspnea, wheeze-bronchospasm, stridor, reduced peak expiratory flow, hypoxemia).

  • Reduced BP or associated symptoms and signs (eg, hypotonia [collapse], syncope, incontinence).

  • Persistent gastrointestinal symptoms and signs (eg, crampy abdominal pain, vomiting).


Note: Skin symptoms or signs are absent or unrecognised in up to 20 percent of anaphylactic episodes. Criterion 2 incorporates symptoms and signs in other organ systems and is applied to patients with exposure to a substance that is a likely allergen for them.


Criterion 3 — Reduced BP after exposure to a KNOWN allergen for that patient (minutes to several hours):



  • Reduced BP in adults is defined as a systolic BP of less than 90 mmHg or greater than 30 percent decrease from that person’s baseline

  • In infants and children, reduced BP is defined as low systolic BP (age specific)* or greater than 30 percent decrease in systolic BP


Note: Criterion 3 is intended to detect anaphylactic episodes in which only one organ system is involved and is applied to patients who have been exposed to a substance to which they are known to be allergic, for example, hypotension or shock after an insect sting.


There will occasionally be patients who do not fulfill any of these criteria, but for whom the administration of adrenaline is appropriate. As an example, it would be appropriate to administer adrenaline to a patient with a history of near-fatal anaphylaxis to peanut who presents with urticaria and flushing that developed within minutes of a known unintentional ingestion of peanut.


Symptoms and signs — Anaphylaxis may present with various combinations of approximately 40 potential symptoms and signs.


Common symptoms and signs of anaphylaxis include the following:



  • Skin symptoms and signs, which occur in up to 90 percent of episodes, including generalized hives, itching or flushing, swollen lips-tongue-uvula, periorbital edema, conjunctival swelling.

  • Respiratory symptoms and signs, which occur in up to 70 percent of episodes, including nasal discharge, nasal congestion, change in voice quality, sensation of throat closure or choking, stridor, shortness of breath, wheeze, cough.

  • Gastrointestinal symptoms and signs, which occur in up to 45 percent of episodes, including nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and crampy abdominal pain.

  • Cardiovascular symptoms and signs, which occur in up to 45 percent of episodes, including hypotonia (collapse), syncope, incontinence, dizziness, tachycardia, and hypotension.


The factors that determine the course of anaphylaxis in an individual patient are not fully understood. At the onset of an anaphylactic episode, it is not possible to predict how severe it will become, how rapidly it will progress, and whether it will resolve promptly and completely or become biphasic or protracted.


Death from anaphylaxis usually results from asphyxiation due to upper airway edema or respiratory failure due to bronchial obstruction, and less commonly, from cardiovascular collapse.


Time course — Anaphylaxis is usually characterized by a defined exposure to a potential trigger, followed by rapid onset, evolution, and resolution of symptoms and signs within minutes to hours.


TRIGGERS — Most anaphylaxis episodes are triggered through an immunologic mechanism involving IgE. Foods are the most common trigger in children, while medications and insect stings are more common triggers in adults than in children.


CONTRIBUTORY FACTORS — Comorbidities and concurrent medications may impact the severity of symptoms and signs and response to treatment in patients with anaphylaxis.


Comorbidities — Asthma and cardiovascular disease are the most important risk factors for a poor outcome from anaphylaxis. Other disorders may also increase risk.



  • Persistent asthma is a risk factor for anaphylaxis. Asthma is also associated with increased risk of death from anaphylaxis, especially in adolescents and young adults with poorly controlled disease.

  • Cardiovascular disease is an important risk factor for death from anaphylaxis in middle-aged and older individuals.

  • Other respiratory diseases, eg, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), interstitial lung disease, or pneumonia are also risk factors for severe or fatal anaphylaxis in older adults.


Concurrent medications — Concurrent administration of certain medications, such as beta-adrenergic blockers, angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors, and alpha-adrenergic blockers may increase the likelihood of severe or fatal anaphylaxis, and may also interfere with the patient’s ability to respond to treatment and with the patient’s compensatory physiologic responses.



  • Beta-adrenergic blockers, administered orally, parenterally, or topically (eg, eye drops) are sometimes associated with severe anaphylaxis and may also potentially make anaphylaxis more difficult to treat by causing unopposed alpha-adrenergic effects. They also can worsen hypotension, as well as reduce the bronchodilator and cardiovascular response to the beta-adrenergic effects of endogenous or exogenous adrenaline.

  • Alpha-adrenergic blockers may decrease the effects of endogenous or exogenous adrenaline at alpha-adrenergic receptors, potentially making anaphylaxis less responsive to the alpha-adrenergic effects of adrenaline.

  • ACE inhibitors are of particular importance in regards to patients who have experienced anaphylaxis to Hymenoptera venom.


LABORATORY TESTS — The clinical diagnosis of anaphylaxis can sometimes be supported by documentation of elevated concentrations of serum or plasma total tryptase or plasma histamine. It is critical to obtain blood samples for measurement of these mast cell and basophil mediators soon after the onset of symptoms, because elevations are transient.



  • Serum or plasma total tryptase – The standardized assay for measurement of total serum or plasma tryptase is widely available in clinical laboratories (normal range 1 to 11.4 ng/mL, Phadia AB, Uppsala, Sweden). In infants under age six months, normal baseline total tryptase concentrations are higher than they are in older infants, children, and adults. Optimally, the blood sample for tryptase measurement needs to be obtained from 15 minutes to 3 hours of symptom onset. A tryptase level that is within normal limits cannot be used to refute the clinical diagnosis of anaphylaxis.


Serial measurements of total tryptase in serum or plasma over several hours may increase the sensitivity and the specificity of the tests.



  • Plasma histamine – Plasma histamine levels typically peak within 5 to 15 minutes of the onset of anaphylaxis symptoms, and then decline to baseline by 60 minutes due to rapid metabolism by N-methyltransferase and diamine oxidase. Elevated plasma histamine levels correlate with anaphylaxis symptoms and signs, and are more likely to be increased than are total serum tryptase levels.


DIFFERENTIAL DIAGNOSIS — Approximately 40 other diseases and conditions might need to be considered in the differential diagnosis of anaphylaxis. The most common disorders in the differential diagnosis include acute generalized urticaria and/or angioedema, acute asthma exacerbations, syncope/faint, and anxiety/panic attacks


IMMEDIATE MANAGEMENT — Prompt assessment and treatment are critical in anaphylaxis, as respiratory or cardiac arrest and death can occur within minutes. The cornerstones of initial management are the following:



  • Removal of the inciting antigen, if possible (eg, stop infusion of a suspect medication)

  • Call for help (summon a resuscitation team in a hospital setting, or call 999 or an equivalent emergency medical services number in a community setting)

  • Intramuscular injection of adrenaline. IM into the mid-outer aspect of the thigh.

  • Placement of the patient in the supine position with the lower extremities elevated, or if dyspneic or vomiting, placement of the patient semi-recumbent with lower extremities elevated

  • Supplemental oxygen (8-10 liters by face mask)

  • Volume resuscitation with intravenous fluids

  • Two large-bore intravenous catheters (ideally 14 to 16 gauges for most adults) should be inserted in preparation for rapid administration of fluids and medications.

  • In normotensive adults, isotonic (0.9 percent) saline should be infused at a rate of 125 mL per hour to maintain venous access.

  • Continuous electronic monitoring of cardiopulmonary status, including blood pressure, heart rate, and respiratory rate, and monitoring of oxygen saturation by pulse oximetry is required for the duration of the episode.

  • Intubation should be performed immediately if marked stridor or respiratory arrest is present.


Intravenous fluids — Intravenous access should be obtained in case fluid resuscitation is required. Massive fluid shifts can occur rapidly in anaphylaxis due to increased vascular permeability, with transfer of up to 35 percent of the intravascular volume into the extravascular space within minutes.


The following principles should guide therapy:


Fluid resuscitation should be initiated immediately in patients who present with orthostasis, hypotension, or incomplete response to intramuscular adrenaline.



  • Adults should receive 1 to 2 liters of normal saline at a rate of 5 to 10 mL/per kilogram in the first minutes of treatment. Large volumes of fluid (eg, up to 7 liters) may be required.

  • Children should receive normal saline in boluses of 20 mL per kilogram, each over 5 to 10 minutes, and repeated as needed. Large volumes of fluid (up to 100 mL per kilogram) may be required.


Normal saline is preferred over other solutions in most situations, because other solutions have potential disadvantages:



  • Lactated Ringer’s solution can potentially contribute to metabolic acidosis

  • Dextrose is rapidly extravasated from the circulation into the interstitial tissues

  • Colloid solutions (eg, albumin or hydroxyethyl starch) confer no survival advantage in patients with distributive shock and are more costly [71]


PHARMACOLOGIC TREATMENTS 


Adrenaline — Adrenaline is the drug of choice for anaphylaxis. The pharmacologic actions of this agent address the pathophysiologic changes that occur in anaphylaxis better than any other medication. It decreases mediator release from mast cells. Moreover, it is the only medication that prevents or reverses obstruction to airflow in the upper and lower respiratory tracts, and prevents or reverses cardiovascular collapse.


Therapeutic actions and adverse effects — The therapeutic actions of adrenaline include the following:



  • Alpha-1 adrenergic agonist effects: increased vasoconstriction, increased peripheral vascular resistance, and decreased mucosal edema (eg, in the upper airway).

  • Beta-1 adrenergic agonist effects: increased inotropy and increased chronotropy.

  • Beta-2 adrenergic agonist effects: increased bronchodilation and decreased release of mediators of inflammation from mast cells and basophils.


Dosing and administration —



  • Intramuscular injection — Intramuscular injection is recommended over subcutaneous injection because it consistently provides a more rapid increase in the plasma and tissue concentrations of adrenaline. The adrenaline dilution for intramuscular injection contains 1 mg per mL and may also be labeled as 1:1000.


For adults, the recommended dose of adrenaline (1 mg per mL) is 0.3 to 0.5 mg per single dose, injected intramuscularly into the mid-outer thigh (vastus lateralis muscle). Based on clinical experience and consensus opinion, this dose may be repeated at 5 to 15 minute intervals. Typically, only one or two additional doses are needed.


For infants and children, the recommended dose of adrenaline (1 mg per mL) is 0.01 mg per kilogram (up to 0.5 mg per dose in a child weighing 50 kg or more), injected intramuscularly into the mid-outer thigh (vastus lateralis muscle). The dose should be drawn up using a 1 mL syringe. This treatment may be repeated at 5 to 15 minute intervals.



  • Intravenous infusion and indications — Patients who do not respond to intramuscular injection of adrenaline and fluid resuscitation may not be adequately perfusing muscle tissues, as most commonly occurs in individuals presenting with profound hypotension or symptoms and signs suggestive of impending shock (dizziness, incontinence of urine and/or stool). Such patients should receive adrenaline by SLOW intravenous infusion, with the rate titrated according to response and the presence of continuous hemodynamic monitoring.



  • The adrenaline dilution for intravenous infusion contains 0.1 mg/mL and may also be labeled 1:10,000.

  • For adults, the initial dose for intravenous adrenaline infusion is 2 to 10 micrograms per minute, titrated to effect on blood pressure with continuous noninvasive monitoring.

  • For infants and children, the dose for intravenous infusion of adrenaline is 0.1 to 1 microgram per kilogram per minute, titrated to effect on blood pressure with continuous noninvasive monitoring.


Situations requiring caution — There are NO absolute contraindications to adrenaline use in anaphylaxis.


Subgroups of patients might theoretically be at higher risk for adverse effects during adrenaline therapy. Formal risk-benefit analyses are not possible.



  • Patients with cardiovascular diseases: reluctance to administer adrenaline due to fear of adverse cardiac effects should be countered by the awareness that the heart is a target organ in anaphylaxis. In the healthy human heart, mast cells are present throughout the myocardium and in the intima of coronary arteries. In patients with coronary artery disease, mast cells are found in atherosclerotic lesions and contribute to atherogenesis. Anaphylaxis can unmask subclinical coronary artery disease, and myocardial infarction and/or arrhythmias can occur during anaphylaxis, even if adrenaline is not injected. Moreover, anaphylaxis itself can cause vasospasm, arrhythmias, and myocardial infarction in patients, including children, with healthy hearts as confirmed by normal electrocardiograms, echocardiography, and other studies after resolution of anaphylaxis.

  • Patients receiving monoamine oxidase inhibitors (which block adrenaline metabolism), or tricyclic antidepressants (which prolong adrenaline duration of action).

  • Patients with certain preexisting conditions, such as recent intracranial surgery, aortic aneurysm, uncontrolled hyperthyroidism or hypertension, or other conditions that might place them at higher risk for adverse effects related to adrenaline.

  • Patients receiving stimulant medications (eg, amphetamines or methylphenidate used in the treatment of attention deficit hyperactivity disorder) or abusing cocaine that might place them at higher risk for adverse effects from adrenaline.


Adjunctive agents — Adjunctive therapies for the treatment of anaphylaxis include antihistamines, bronchodilators, glucocorticoids, and other vasopressors in addition to adrenaline.


H1 antihistamines —



  • H1 antihistamines relieve itch and hives. These medications DO NOT relieve upper or lower airway obstruction, hypotension or shock, and in standard doses do not inhibit mediator release from mast cells and basophils. For parenteral treatment, only first-generation agents are available:


H2 antihistamines — There is minimal evidence to support the use of H2 antihistamines in conjunction with H1 antihistamines in the emergency treatment of anaphylaxis.


If used, ranitidine (50 mg in adults) (12.5 to 50 mg [1 mg per kilogram] in children), may be diluted in 5 percent dextrose to a total volume of 20 mL and injected intravenously over five minutes.


Bronchodilators — For the treatment of bronchospasm not responsive to adrenaline, inhaled bronchodilators, such as salbutamol should be administered by nebulizer/compressor as needed.


Glucocorticoids — The onset of action of glucocorticoids takes several hours; therefore, these medications do not relieve the initial symptoms and signs of anaphylaxis. The rationale for giving them is to prevent the biphasic or protracted reactions.


CARE UPON RESOLUTION — To reduce the risk of recurrence, patients who have been successfully treated for anaphylaxis subsequently require confirmation of the anaphylaxis trigger, as well as anaphylaxis education.


Observation — There is no consensus regarding the optimal observation period for a patient who has been successfully treated for anaphylaxis in a healthcare facility. The following are suggested:



  • Patients with moderate anaphylaxis who do not respond promptly to adrenaline, and all patients with severe anaphylaxis, should be admitted to an observation unit or to a hospital.

  • For patients with anaphylaxis that resolved promptly and completely with treatment, we suggest a minimum observation period of a few hours, and prefer a period of 8 to 10 hours, if possible. We also suggest that if patients are sent home after only a few hours, they should be trained to use an adrenaline autoinjector.


SUMMARY AND RECOMMENDATIONS



  • Anaphylaxis is a serious allergic reaction that is rapid in onset and may cause death.

  • There are three clinical criteria for the diagnosis of anaphylaxis, which reflect the different ways in which anaphylaxis may present.

  • Recognition is not always easy, because anaphylaxis can mimic many other disorders and can be variable in its presentation.

  • Patients and healthcare professionals commonly fail to recognize and diagnose anaphylaxis in its early stages, when it is most responsive to treatment.

  • Anaphylaxis most often results from an IgE-mediated allergic reaction. Common triggers include foods, insect stings, and medications.

  • The clinical diagnosis of anaphylaxis may or may not be confirmed by measurement of elevated concentrations of plasma histamine or serum or plasma total tryptase. Elevations in these mediators are transient. Serum tryptase is seldom elevated in food-triggered anaphylaxis or in normotensive patients with anaphylaxis.

  • Prompt recognition and treatment are critical in anaphylaxis. In fatal anaphylaxis, median times to cardiorespiratory arrest are 5 minutes in iatrogenic anaphylaxis, 15 minutes in stinging insect venom-induced anaphylaxis, and 30 minutes in food-induced anaphylaxis.

  • Adrenaline is lifesaving in anaphylaxis. It should be injected as early as possible in the episode in order to prevent progression of symptoms and signs. There are no absolute contraindications to adrenaline use, and it is the treatment of choice for anaphylaxis of any severity.

  • For adults, the dose of adrenaline is 0.3 mg to 0.5 mg, injected intramuscularly into the mid-outer thigh. This treatment may be repeated at 5 to 15 minute intervals.

  • For infants and children, the dose of adrenaline is 0.01 mg per kilogram up to 0.5 mg per dose, injected intramuscularly into the mid-outer thigh. This treatment may be repeated at 5 to 15 minute intervals.

  • Massive fluid shifts can occur in anaphylaxis, and all patients with orthostasis, hypotension, or incomplete response to adrenaline should receive large volume fluid resuscitation with normal saline.

  • Supplemental oxygen should be administered.




Check out the NICE Guidelines on Anaphylaxis CG134 Anaphylaxis


Few important points from the NICE Guidelines



  • Food is a particularly common trigger in children, while medicinal products are much more common triggers in older people.

  • One in 1333 of the population of England has experienced anaphylaxis at some point in their lives

  • Approximately 20 deaths from anaphylaxis reported each year in the UK

  • Document the acute clinical features (airway, breathing, circulation, associated skin and mucosal symptoms)

  • Record the time of onset of the reaction

  • Record possible trigger factor.

  • Take blood sample for mast cell tryptase  (1st sample straight after receiving emergency treatment and 2nd sample after 1-2 hrs after starting the symptoms)

  • Adult and young people (16, 17yrs) should observe for 6-12 hrs from the onset of symptoms depending on the response to treatment.

  • Paediatric patient need to be admitted for longer observation.

  • At discharge all suspected anaphylaxis patient should have 1) referral to allergy services, 2) adrenaline injector and 3) patient information on anaphylaxis.


 


Source: Uptodate, eMedicine, NICE Guidelines



HMP 1: Anaphylaxis: Rapid recognition and Treatment