Cardiology - Short Answer Questions (SAQ)

Question 1:

A 66 year old male presents to ED with chest pain. His pulse 100, BP 90/58.

The CT1 doctor has commenced Oxygen and given the patient 3 mg buccal nitrate

1. What does the ECG show? What is the diagnosis?


2. What would you tell the SHO to do?


3. List 5 treatment options.


4. Which vessel is involved?

Answer

Answer

A 66 year old male presents to ED with chest pain. P100, BP 90/58.

The SHO has commenced Oxygen and given the patient 3mg buccal nitrate

1. What does the ECG show? What is the diagnosis?

• Rate 60bpm


• ST elevation II, III, AVF


• ST depression aVL, V1-V6.


• Inf MI with RV involvement.

2. What would you tell the CT1 to do?

• Remove nitrate


• Lie patient flat.

3. List 5 treatment options.

• Aspirin 300mg


• IV fluid bolus 100-200mg to increase filling pressure RV


• IV opiate plus anti emetic eg metoclopramide


• Depending upon local policy –thrombolysis or PCI.

4. Which vessel is involved?

• Right Coronary Artery (RCA)

Question 2:

A 61 year old man presents with central chest pain, he is a NIDDM.

He has a troponin I level of <5.

1. Describe the ECG


2. Give 5 components of the TIMI score.


3. The patient has received aspirin, nitrates and analgesia, give 3 further pharmacological interventions as the patient has ongoing pain.

Answer

Answer

A 61 year old man presents with central chest pain, he is a NIDDM.

He has a troponin I level of <5.

1. Describe the ECG

• Sinus rhythm


• Rate 75bpm


• Marked ST depression V3-V6

2. Give 5 components of the TIMI score.

• Age >60


• Elevated cardiac marker


• Previous stenosis> 50%


• ST depression on presenting ECG


• Three or more risk factors for coronary artery disease eg Cig, FH, hypertension, hypercholesterolaemia, DM


• Aspirin use in preceding 7 days

The patient has received aspirin, nitrates and analgesia, give 3 further pharmacological interventions as the patient has ongoing pain.

• IV opiate eg DM 5mg IV


• IV nitrate infusion titrated to symptoms/BP


• LMWH eg enoxaparin 1mg/kg


• Beta blocker eg Atenolol 5mg


• Clopidogrel 300mg


• Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa inhibitor.

Question 3:

56-year-old man presents with a 2 hour history of severe central chest pain, vomiting and sweating +++.

On arrival in ED he is seen by a junior doctor who gives Oxygen, gets IV access and an ECG and gives a 5mb buccal tablet and diamorphine 2mg with anti-emetic.

His observations on arrival were P=95/min BP= 169/105.

The doctor comes to ask for your help, as the patient is now more sweaty and confused with a BP 85/45.

1. Describe the ECG.


2. What is your diagnosis?


3. Why is the patient hypotensive?


4. Which coronary vessel is likely to be involved?


5. How would you manage this patient?


6. What does the following ECG show?

Answer

Answer

56-year-old man presents with a 2 hour history of severe central chest pain, vomiting and sweating +++.

On arrival in ED he is seen by a junior doctor who gives Oxygen, gets IV access and an ECG and gives a 5mb buccal tablet and diamorphine 2mg with anti-emetic.

His observations on arrival were P=95/min BP= 169/105.

The doctor comes to ask for your help, as the patient is now more sweaty and confused with a BP 85/45.

1. Describe the ECG.

• 1^st degree heart block


• ST elevation II,III,aVF, ST depression I, aVL, T inversion V1-V4

2. What is your diagnosis?

• Inferior MI with involvement of RV

3. Why is the patient hypotensive?

• Right ventricular infarction, and buccal nitrate tablet

4. Which coronary vessel is likely to be involved?

• Right Coronary Artery

5. How would you manage this patient?

• Give gentle fluid bolus 100-200ml saline and reassess BP


• Depending upon local hospital protocol give thrombolysis or refer for PCI

6. What does the following ECG show?

• Complete heart block

Question 4:

A 21 year old male presents with palpitations. He brings with him a copy of his ECG recorded by his General Practitioner 3 weeks ago (A).At present he is on a cardiac monitor with P= 180, BP 100/60, Alert and orientated but feeling dizzy.

A

B. The 12 lead taken in ED shows

1. Describe ECG A.


2. Outline treatment plan for current attendance


3. Amiodarone is a commonly used antiarrhythmic agent. What are its :

• mode of action                    (1)


• 4 common side effects      (1/2 each)


• 1 contraindication              (1)

Answer

Answer

A 21 year old male presents with palpitations. He brings with him a copy of his ECG recorded by his General Practitioner 3 weeks ago (A).At present he is on a cardiac monitor with P= 180, BP 100/60, Alert and orientated but feeling dizzy.

1. Describe ECG A.

• Sinus


• Rate 80bpm


• Short PR interval


• Widening of QRS with delta waves


• LVH

2. Outline treatment plan for current attendance

• Oxygen, cardiac monitoring, IVA


• Vagal manouvers


• Adenosine if it is SVT


• If in AF, DC cardioversion or IV Amiodarone, early liaison with cardiology.

3. Amiodarone is a commonly used antiarrhythmic agent,, what are its :

Mode of action

• Class III antiarythmic acts to prolong duration of action potential, also acts on fast NA channels and B adrenergic receptors.

4 common side effects

• Hypotension


• Bradycardia


• Skin discolouration


• Corneal microdeposits


• Lung fibrosis


• Hepatic toxicity


• Peripheral neuropathy

One contraindication

• Pregnancy/breast feeding


• 2^nd degree/3^rd degree heart block


• Iodine allergy

Question 5:

A 74 year old female presents after waking at 5 am with sudden severe dyspnoea. SpO2 86% OA, afebrile. CXR shown below.

1. List 4 features shown on CXR


2. What is the diagnosis?


3. Explain by drawing or words Starling’s curve and how it might differ in this patient


4. Give 3 drugs with doses and routes you would use in this patient


5. What is the stimulus for releases of ANP and by what mechanism does it act?

Answer

Answer

A 74 year old female presents after waking at 5am with sudden severe dyspnoea.       SpO2 86% OA, afebrile. CXR shown below.

1. List 4 features shown on CXR

• Cardiomegaly


• Fluid in horizontal fissure


• Kerley B lines


• Alveolar hilar shadowing


• Bilateral pleural effusion

2. What is the diagnosis?

• Acute pulmonary oedema.

3. Explain by drawing or words Starling’s curve and how it might differ in this patient

The Frank–Starling law of the heart  states that the stroke volume of the heart increases in response to an increase in the volume of blood filling the heart (the end diastolic volume) when all other factors remain constant. The increased volume of blood stretches the ventricular wall, causing cardiac muscle to contract more forcefully (the so-called Frank–Starling mechanisms)

Contractility can increase or decrease SV independent of LVEDP

4. Give 3 drugs with doses and routes you would use in this patient

• High flow Oxygen, 15L via non –rebreather mask


• Nitrates, IV GTN, 50mg in 50ml saline starting at 0.6mg/hr, and titrated to response and BP.


• Opiates - 2.5-5mg IV diamorphine


• Frusemide 50mg IV

5. What is the stimulus for releases of ANP and by what mechanism does it act?

• ANP is released by excess volume and hence stretch of atria. Acts as antagonist to rennin-angiotensin system, increases renal sodium excretion so increasing naturesis

Question 6:

A 75 year old female presents with recurrent syncope.

1. Describe the ECG


2. List 4 common potential causes


3. The patient drops her BP to 70/30. How would you manage the patient?

Answer

Answer

A 75 year old female presents with recurrent syncope.

1. Describe the ECG

• Broad complex tachycardia


• Capture beats


• Fusion beats

2. List 4 common potential causes

• Metabolic abnormalities eg hyperkalaemia


• Drugs eg. TCA, quinidine, procainamide, digoxin


• Long QT syndrome (congenital, acquired)


• MI/IHD

3. The patient drops her BP to 70/30. How would you manage the patient?

• Oxygen


• IVA


• If conscious sedate with IV midazolam before DC cardioversion, 150J biphasic, 200J monophasic.


• Cardiology review and CCU admission.

Question 7:

45 year old male presents with 2 hour history of central crushing chest pain, sweaty and vomited twice. No PMH. On Oxygen, ongoing pain.

• What does the ECG show?


• What is the diagnosis?       What blood vessel is involved?


• Give 4 management steps


• Using the same ECG, the patient is a 76 year old man. PMH MI 3/12, 30min pain, now resolved, normal observations. Give 4 management steps

Answer

Answer

45 year old male presents with 2 hour history of central crushing chest pain, sweaty and vomited twice. No PMH. On Oxygen, ongoing pain.

1. What does the ECG show?

• Sinus rhythm


• LBBB

2. What is the diagnosis?       What blood vessel is involved?

Acute MI, cause by proximal occlusion of LAD.

3. Give 4 management steps

• Aspirin300mg


• Nitrate, 5mg sublingual or IV


• Diamorphine 5mg IV ( Morphine if Diamorphine is not available)


• PCI or thrombolysis depending upon local protocol.

4. Using the same ECG, the patient is a 76 year old man. PMH MI 3/12, 30min pain, now resolved, normal observations. Give 4 management steps

• Aspirin 300mg PO


• Clopidogrel 300mg PO


• Enoxaparin 1mg/kg (or Dalteparin) SC


• Request old ECG


• Refer for admission

Question 8:

75 year old male presents having collapse, paramedics had difficult detecting pulse.

1. Describe the ECG, what is the diagnosis?

The patient has another ‘funny do’ in the ED, repeat ECG is below.

2. Describe the ECG

3. How would you manage this patient?

4. What asystolic rhythm might he develop?

Answer

Answer

75 year old male presents having collapse, paramedics had difficult detecting pulse.

1. Describe the ECG, what is the diagnosis?

• Sinus rhythm


• Rate 75bpm


• Left axis deviation (LAD) p


• Prolonged P-R interval


• RBBB


• Incomplete Trifascicular block (1^st degree AV block, RBBB, LAD)

The patient has another ‘funny do’ in the ED, repeat ECG is below.

2. Describe the ECG.

• Complete trifascicular block (LAD, RBBB and Third degree heart block)


• Bradycardia, vent rate of approx 30bpm


• No relationship P and QRS

3. How would you manage this patient?

• Oxygen


• IVA


• Atropine 0.5 mg IV whilst setting up transcutaneous pacing, adrenaline 2-10ug/kg/min


• Cardiology review for pacemaker.

4. What asystolic rhythm might he develop?

• P wave asystole, ie. ventricular standstill

Question 9:

A 30 year old female presents with SOB and dizziness. Her blood pressure 80/40 mm Hg.

1. What is the diagnosis?

2. How would you manage this patient?

Answer

Answer

A 30 year old female presents with SOB and dizziness. Her blood pressure 80/40 mm Hg.

1. What is the diagnosis?

• Narrow complex tachycardia with rate 150bpm (Supra Ventricular Tachycardia)

2. How would you manage this patient?

• Oxygen


• IV access and fluid bolus


• Sedate with IV midazolam (or Propofol) if conscious prior to DC cardioversion 150J biphasic, 200J monophasic


• Amiodarone (if cardioversion unsuccessful) 300mg over 10-20 mins followed by repeat cardioversion. Remaining 900mg over 24 hours.


• Cardiology review

Question 10:

A 39 year old female presents with palpitations and collapse. Her BP on arrival is 95/55.

1. Describe the ECG, what is the diagnosis?

2. Give 3 possible causes

3. How would you manage this patient?

Answer

Answer

A 39 year old female presents with palpitations and collapse. Her BP on arrival is 95/55.

1. Describe the ECG, what is the diagnosis?

• Episode of broad complex tachycardia with alternating axis.


• Torsade de pointes

2. Give three possible causes

• Hypomagnesaemia


• Hypokalaemia


• Long QT syndrome congenital eg romano-ward, acquired eg TCA, quinidine, procainaide


• Brugada syndrome.

3. How would you manage this patient?

• Oxygen


• IVA – magnesium 2g IV 10 mins


• Treat underlying causes, if no improvement DC cardioversion


• Cardiology / Refer CCU.

Further read: Lifeinthefastlane

Causes of Prolonged QT syndrome:

• Genetic: Romano Ward, Lange Neilson


• Electrolytes: Hypokalaemia, hypomagnesaemia, hypocalcaemia


• Environmental: Hypothermia


• Drugs: Quinine, sotalol, amiodarone, organophosphates, antihistamines


• Cardiac: Myocarditis, IHD


• SAH
  

Chest Pain of Recent Onset Nice 2010:

• ECG asap


• O2- if sats <94% - aim for 94-98% unless at risk of hypercapnic respiratory failure


• Stable Angina unlikely if: continuous/prolonged; unrelated to activity; bought on by breathing in; association with dizziness, palpitations, tingling, swallow problem.


• Hx: chest pain radiating to both arms, with sweating and nausea lasting >15minutes


• Initial Trop T: if norm repeat 10-12 hrs


• Stable Angina: constricting; ppt by exertion; relieve <5mins by rest/GTN
  

CHADS2  - The CHADS2 score is a clinical prediction rule for estimating the risk of stroke in patients with atrial fibrillation.

• C Congestive heart failure 1


• H Hypertension: blood pressure consistently above 140/90 mmHg (or treated hypertension on medication) 1


• A Age ≥75 years 1


• D Diabetes mellitus 1


• S2 Prior Stroke or TIA or Thromboembolism 2

Score 0 aspirin; 1 aspirin or warfarin; 2 or more warfarin risk/benefit

The San Francisco Syncope Rule (SFSR) is a simple rule for evaluating the risk of adverse outcomes in patient who present with fainting or syncope. The mnemonic for features of the rule is CHESS (or CHEST):

• C - History of congestive heart failure


• H - Hematocrit < 30%


• E - Abnormal ECG


• S - Shortness of breath


• S - Triage systolic blood pressure < 90 A patient with any of the above measures is considered at high risk for a serious outcome SFSR has a sensitivity of 74-98% and specificity of 56%
  

Anti-ischaemic agents:

Beta-blockers:

• Effects on beta-1 receptors that decrease in myocardial oxygen consumption.


• The target heart rate for a good treatment effect should be between 50 and 60 eat per minute.


• Significantly impaired AV conduction and history of asthma or of acute LV dysfunction should NOT receive beta-blockers.

Nitrates:

• Venodilator leads to decrease pre-load and LV end-diastolic volume, resulting in a decrease in myocardial oxygen consumption. Titrated upwards until symptoms are relieved unless side effects occur.

Recommendations for anticoagulation:

• Fondaparinux is recommended on the basis of the most favourable efficacy/safety profile


• Enoxaparin has less favourable efficacy/safety profile than fondaparinux should be used if the bleeding risk is low.


• Aspirin irreversibly inhibits COX-1 in platelets, thereby limiting the formation of thromboxane A2, thus inhibiting platelet aggregation.
  

Non Cardiac conditions with troponin elevations:

• CCF


• Aortic dissection, aortic valve disease, or hypertrophic cardiomyopathy


• Cardiac contusions, ablation, pacing, cardioversion


• Inflammatory diseases, e.g. myocarditis


• Pulmonary embolism, severe pulmonary hypertension


• Chronic or acute renal dysfunction


• Acute neurological disease, including stroke or SAH


• Drug toxicity


• Burns, if affecting >30% of body surface area


• Rhabdomyolysis


• Critically ill patients, especially with respiratory failure, or sepsis
  

Relevant Videos

Relevant Videos

 

Cardiology - Short Answer Questions (SAQ)

Critical Appraisal Practice Paper 4 (Diagnostic)

Total marks: 23
Time allowed: 90 mins

You might wish to download the paper. Do it in 90 minutes and then compare with the answers provided here.

Paper: Mallampati test as a predictor of laryngoscopic view

Biomed Pap Med Fac Univ Palacky Olomouc Czech Repub. 2010 Dec;154(4):339-43.

Download (PDF, 65KB)

1. Provide a summary / abstract for the paper. (Up to 5 marks)

Answer

Answer

This should include all or some of the following points:

Aim. To determine the accuracy of the modified Mallampati test for predicting the difficulty of subsequent tracheal intubation.

Design. A cross-sectional, clinical, observational, non-blinded study. A quality analysis of anaesthetic care.

Setting. Operating theatres and department of anaesthesia in a university hospital in the Czech Republic.

Material and methods. Following local ethics committee approval and patients’ informed consent to anaesthesia, all adult patients (> 18 yrs) presenting for any type of non-emergency surgical procedures under general anaesthesia requiring endotracheal intubation were enrolled.

Prior to anaesthesia, Samsoon and Young"s modification of the Mallampati test (modified Mallampati test) was performed.

Following induction, the anaesthetist described the laryngoscopic view using the Cormack-Lehane scale. Classes 3 or 4 of the modified Mallampati test were considered a predictor of difficult intubation. Grades 3 or 4 of the Cormack-Lehane classification of the laryngoscopic view were defined as impaired glottic exposure.

The sensitivity, specificity, positive and negative predictive value, relative risk, likelihood ratio and accuracy of the modified Mallampati test were calculated on 2x2 contingency tables.

Results. Of the total 1,518 patients enrolled, 48 had difficult intubation (3.2%).

We failed to detect as many as 35.4% patients in whom glottis exposure during direct laryngoscopy was inadequate (sensitivity 64.4%).

Compared to the original article by Mallampati, we found lower specificity (82.4% vs. 99.5%), lower positive predictive value (0.107 vs. 0.933), higher negative predictive value (0.986 vs. 0.928), lower likelihood ratio (3.68 vs. 91.0) and accuracy (0.819 vs. 0.929).

Conclusion. When used as a single examination, the modified Mallampati test is of limited value in predicting difficult intubation in elective surgery patients.

2. Give three weaknesses of the study design and suggest improvements for these (up to 3 marks)

Answer

Answer

Strengths - there aren’t that many!

• They did get ethical approval


• The sample size was large


• Sample recruited from a good cross section of patients undergoing elective surgery

Weaknesses – there are lots of these!

• Patients studied are elective not emergency patients, so use in emergency situations cannot be inferred.


• It’s unclear who assessed the Mallampati Score but it’s likely to be the same anaesthetist who also assessed the outcome (laryngoscopic grade).


• It’s unclear what grade of anaesthetist assessed Mallampati or laryngoscopic grade.


• ? only one person assessed Mallampati Score.


• The person assigning the Cormack / Lehane grade was not unaware of the previously assigned Mallampati Score. In diagnostic studies it is important that the outcome is assigned without knowledge of the intervention test result.

The study could have been improved (for an EM readership) by:

• Studying a group of patients needing emergency airway control.


• The authors could have described in more detail who exactly was assigning the Mallampati Score e.g. grade, level of training etcc.. and how this was done.


• More than one assessor could have done this. The authors could have got two people to do this to ensure consistency and assessed agreement using a Kappa statistic or similar. This would help the reader to assess if the Mallampati Score was reproducible enough to make it worth doing amongst a wider range of clinicians.


• Someone else (who didn’t do the Mallampati Score) should have assigned the Cormack & Lehane Grade. The C&L grade given could have been influenced by knowledge of the Mallampati Score.

3. Name one checklist which is useful in evaluating the quality of diagnostic papers such as this. Give two further questions / points within this checklist not covered by the weaknesses you have mentioned in question 2. above. (up to 3 marks)

Answer

Answer

Common checklists include QUADAS and STARD (see below)

The STARD statement can be found here (it is similar to QUADAS):

http://www.stard-statement.org/

In this study the “index test” is the Mallampati Score and the “reference standard” is the Cormack & Lehane Grade. You should go through this checklist with the study and see how many weaknesses you can now identify!

4. The table 3 below is taken from the results section.

 Summarise the results in the table in one sentence. What is the Mann-Whiney U test? (Up to 2 marks)

Answer

Answer

Men are taller and heavier than women!

The Mann Whitney U Test is a test used to compare continuous (or ordinal) data in two independent groups, when the data is non parametric (i.e does not follow a normal distribution). It is analogous to a t-test which does the same thing but for normally distributed data.

 5. Construct a 2 x 2 table illustrating the main data from the current study (not Mallampati’s original). (Up to 2 marks)

Answer

Answer

		Actual Difficulty of Intubation(by Cormack Lehane Grade)
		Difficult (3/4)	Easy (1/2)
Predicted Difficulty of Intubation (Mallampati Class)	Difficult (3/4)	31	258	289
	Easy (1/2)	17	1212	1229
		48	1470	1518

6. Use your table in 5. above to demonstrate how the positive likelihood ratio and the accuracy were calculated. Explain how you would interpret the positive likelihood ratio in this study. (4 marks)

Answer

Answer

Positive LR = Sensitivity / 1 – Specificity

Sensitivity = a / a+c = 31 / 48 = 0.646

Specificity = d / b+d = 1212 / 1470 = 0.824

Positive LR = 0.646 / 0.176 = 3.67

Accuracy = total number (%) of “correct” predictions = a + d / a + b + c + d

Accuracy = 1243 / 1518 = 81.9%

LR+ above 10 means that a positive test (i.e. a higher Mallampati Score) will significantly increase the post test probability (of a difficult intubation) enough to make the test worth doing. Figures below 10 (like 3.67) mean that a positive test doesn’t really alter your chances of predicting the outcome enough to make it worth doing.

 

7. The authors used Fishers Exact Test to statistically compare their results with the results of Mallampati. Describe the indications for using this test as opposed to a Chi Squared Test? (Up to 2 marks)

Answer

Answer

Fishers Exact Test is used for 2 x 2 data when the expected count in any of the 4 boxes is “low”. The rule of thumb is if the expected number is less than 10 in any box then Fishers Exact Test should be used.. The expected number in any box can be calculated by multiplying the total of the column by the total row value and dividing by the overall number of patients / data points.

The authors appear to have used 2 x 2 tables for each of the possible outcomes. An example for “true negative” is illustrated below.

		Study
		Adamus et al	Mallampati et al
Observed Result	True Negative	1212	181	1393
	Not True Negative	306	29	335
		1518	210	1728

Thus for box d (value 29), the expected value is 210 (the total column value) x 335 (the total row value) / 1728 (the overall total). This is 40.1. In this case all the expected values are greater than 10 and so Chi Squared could have been used. However, for some of the others (e.g. false positives), the expected values will be low so I suppose the authors went for Fishers Test for consistency!

8. What are your conclusions overall? Is this paper going to influence your practice? Briefly suggest any ideas for future research in this area? (Up to 2 Marks)

Answer

Answer

Overall this paper is not great and is unlikely to influence your practice. There are multiple weaknesses and potential areas of bias. In addition the results are very different from the original Mallampati Study.

The authors hint at the other factors which allow a good assessment of the airway (e.g. weight or patients etc..). A better study might look at the whole LEMON acronym which you are probably familiar with from ATLS. It could be done in an ED setting with independent assessment of LEMON and the final C&L grade / ease of intubation.

Finally given that the study results are so different from the original Mallampati Study you could propose some secondary research (a systematic review, Best BET or even CTR!) to answer the question posed.

Mallampati test as a predictor of laryngoscopic view. Biomed Pap Med Fac Univ Palacky Olomouc Czech Repub. 2010 Dec;154(4):339-43.

A clinical sign to predict difficult tracheal intubation: a prospective study. Can Anaesth Soc J. 1985 Jul;32(4):429-34.

 

Critical Appraisal Practice Paper 4 (Diagnostic)

As a doctor, am I allowed to make mistakes?

Every doctor makes mistakes. But, says physician Brian Goldman, medicine"s culture of denial (and shame) keeps doctors from ever talking about those mistakes, or using them to learn and improve. Telling stories from his own long practice, he calls on doctors to start talking about being wrong.

 

As a doctor, am I allowed to make mistakes?

Medical Complications of Pregnancy

Check this useful video podcast done by Dr Andy Neill. Andy is an Emergency Medicine doctor from Dublin.

http://vimeo.com/112509456

Check Andy"s blog for more useful information

 

Medical Complications of Pregnancy

Critical Appraisal Practice Paper 3 (Therapeutic)

Total marks: 23
Time allowed: 90 mins

You might wish to download the paper. Do it in 90 minutes and then compare with the answers provided here.

Paper: A Randomized Trial of Nebulized 3% Hypertonic Saline With Epinephrine in the Treatment of Acute Bronchiolitis in the Emergency Department

Download (PDF, 133KB)

1. Provide a summary / abstract for the paper. (Up to 5 marks)

Answer

Answer

This should include all or some of the following points:

Objective: To determine whether nebulised 3% hypertonic saline with epinephrine is more effective than nebulised 0.9% saline with epinephrine in the treatment of bronchiolitis in the emergency department.

Design: Randomised double blind controlled trial Setting: Single centre urban paediatric emergency department in Canada. Participants: Infants younger than 12 months with mild to moderate bronchiolitis.

Interventions: Patients were randomised to receive epinephrine in either hypertonic or normal saline.

Outcome measures: The primary outcome measure was the change in respiratory distress, as measured by the Respiratory Assessment Change Score (RACS) from baseline to 120 minutes. Change in oxygen saturation was also determined. Secondary outcome measures included rates of hospital admission and unbooked return to the ED following discharge.

Results: 46 patients were enrolled. The two groups had similar baseline characteristics. RACS from baseline to 120 minutes demonstrated no improvement in respiratory distress in the hypertonic saline group when compared to the normal saline group. The change in oxygen saturations in the hypertonic group was also no different to that of the normal saline group. Rates of admission and unplanned return to the ED were similar between the two groups.

Conclusion: In this study hypertonic saline with epinephrine did not improve clinical outcome in acute bronchiolitis when compared to normal saline with epinephrine.

2. Give 3 strengths and 3 weaknesses of the study design? (Up to 3 marks)

Answer

Answer

Strengths:

• Done in a paediatric ED


• Patients defined quite tightly in terms of clinical features and RDAI Score. Patients are thus likely to have bronchiolitis


• Demographic and clinical data collected by research assistants using standard data collection form.


• Excellent allocation concealment. Pharmacy made up identical looking syringes and retained the randomisation list until the end of the study.


• Blinding also good. Neither staff nor patients were aware of their treatment


• Outcomes are clearly defined and seem relevant and important.

Weaknesses:

• Limited hours of enrolment (4pm to 2 am). ? selection bias


• Only conducted if research assistant was available


• Whilst scoring system well defined it seems quite complex and open to interobserver variability (although the authors state not)


• It’s unclear who is assigning the RDAI score.

There are some things you can put into either column! These basically relate to whether you like pragmatic trials (most ED ones should be I think) or explanatory trials. Examples here include:

• Physicians being able to give any other treatment as they see fit during the study period including a further dose of the trial medication. This is very “real world” (pragmatic) and I think is a strength. You may feel that to be of any value all the patients should have had the same treatment except the trial medication (the explanatory approach) and thus see this as a weakness


• Similar argument for the use of trained and educated research assistants in collecting the data and looking after the patients. Could be seen as a weakness as it’s not very “real world” (when stressed out busy people would be trying to look after several patients at a time!). On the other hand, the data you get will be more accurate.
  

3. What is block randomisation? What are the benefits and pitfalls of this method? (Up to 3 marks)

Answer

Answer

Block randomisation is a technique used to ensure that at any particular time in a study, the number of patients in each group is roughly similar.

In this study the authors used blocks of 4. Each block will have 2 of each of the treatments (although their position within the block of 4 will be randomly allocated). The blocks themselves are then randomised. In this way one group can never have more than 2 patients more than any of the others at any time.

The biggest pitfall with this method is that it might be possible for researchers or the ED medical or nursing staff to guess what the next treatment is going to be. E.g. if the research assistant is on patient 7, and knows that the last 2 patients had got better more quickly than usual (if she had a pre conceived idea than hypertonic saline was marvellous!), she might assume that the next patient was going to get normal saline. This might affect decisions about whether to include the patient in the trial in the first place.

In this particular example this doesn’t seem to have been a problem because the treatments look the same and their effects were similar. However it can be a problem when the person initiating the trial treatment is not blinded (eg NIV versus standard facemask) or the treatments can be distinguished in other ways (e.g. a trial of iv Pabrinex versus iv “brown” saline for alcoholics when the smell might give it away!)

4. What alternative methods of treatment allocation are there? (Up to 1 mark)

Answer

Answer

Single patient randomisation

Quasi randomisation – e.g. days of the week, hour of the day etc..

5. What do you understand by the term “intention-to-treat”? What are the advantages of this? What is the opposite approach and what advantages does this have? (Up to 4 marks)

Answer

Answer

Intention to treat includes all randomised patients in the groups to which they were randomly assigned, regardless of their adherence with the entry criteria, regardless of the treatment they actually received, and regardless of subsequent withdrawal from treatment or deviation from the protocol.

Once again this is very “real world”. It’s no good if a treatment is excellent for those who actually take it but a lot of people can’t tolerate it and so withdraw from a trial. Intention to treat analysis will ensure that the real world effects of a treatment are reported by ensuring that the results from “drop outs” are included in the analysis.

The alternative approach is sometimes referred to as “per protocol” or “explanatory” and means that the analysis is done only for those patients who actually took the allocated treatments. This might result in a better understanding of the actual biological effects of the treatment but isn’t so “real world”.

6. The authors used Fishers Exact Test for analysis of some of their data. What type of data can be analysed in this way and when is this used (Up to 2 marks)

Answer

Answer

The data is categorical data and usually dichotomous. That is, there are two treatment groups and the outcome measure is binary (i.e a 2 x 2 table can be generated).

Fishers test is used when the “expected” number in any one of the 4 quadrants is low (typically less than 5). Chi squared tests should only be used when all the expected numbers are higher than this.

7. The authors state that a change in RACS Score of anything less than 3 would not be clinically important. Why is it important to decide on the minimally clinically important effect and how does this effect power and sample size. (Up to 3 marks)

Answer

Answer

There is no point in designing a study to detect a difference in effect which isn’t clinically important.

Decisions on what is considered clinically important can be made using “hunch”, previous published studies, expert opinion or patient expectations but should be justified in the paper.

Detecting a smaller difference will require a larger sample size or a reduction in the power of the study. Most studies use 80% power as the minimum acceptable.

8. The following table is taken from the paper.

What do you understand by the figure 0.74 (-1.45 to 2.93) in the top right section of the table? (Up to 3 marks)

Answer

Answer

The mean difference between the changes in RACS Score over 120 minutes is 0.74 in favour of normal saline (normal saline improving the score by 5.13 points on average compared to hypertonic saline improving the score by 4.39 on average).

However, the 95% confidence intervals for this figure cross zero with a range of -1.45 to 2.93 indicating that the range of “plausible results” lies between hypertonic saline being better and normal saline being best. i.e there is no difference between the two statistically.

9. What are your conclusions overall? Is this paper going to influence your practice? (Up to 2 Marks)

Answer

Answer

This is well constructed and described study nebulised hypertonic saline in children attending the ED with bronchiolitis.

A bigger study with across the day patient selection might be useful

It won’t change my practice regarding hypertonic saline but I may have to read about nebulised adrenaline in this condition!

 

Critical Appraisal Practice Paper 3 (Therapeutic)

Statistics in Divided Doses

Guys check out the following statistics related post from UKMi. I found some of the articles very useful.

UK Medicines Information is an NHS pharmacy based service. Its aim is to support the safe, effective and efficient use of medicines by the provision of evidence-based information and advice on their therapeutic use.

Number 1 (July 2001)

• Type and definition of data


• Precision in data measurement

Download (PDF, 132KB)

Number 2 (August 2001)

• Samples and populations


• Intersubject variations


• Standard deviations


• Use of graphs to illustrate data


• Centiles and ranges

Download (PDF, 229KB)

Number 3 (September 2001)

• Factors to consider when assessing a sample


• Confidence intervals


• Standard error of the mean


• Confidence intervals for median values


• Parametric vs. non-parametric methods

Download (PDF, 74KB)

Number 4 (May 2002)

• Random variation


• The null hypothesis


• The "P" value


• Power, sample size and errors


• Subgroup analysis


• Relevance of bias


• Randomisation

Download (PDF, 74KB)

Number 5 (November 2002)

• Standard error of the mean vs. standard deviation


• Comparing the means of large samples


• The standard error of the difference between two sample means


• The 95% confidence interval for this difference


• Testing the null hypothesis and test statistics


• The Normal probability distribution

Download (PDF, 144KB)

Number 6 (April 2003)

Dealing with small samples

The t distribution

Using the t test to compare:

• a test value to a ‘normal’ value – (a one-sample t test)


• paired samples


• unpaired samples

Download (PDF, 178KB)

Number 7 (August 2004)

• Non-parametric methods of analysis


• Wilcoxon signed rank sum test for analysing paired data


• Mann-Whitney test for analysing unpaired data

Download (PDF, 320KB)

Number 8 (July 2005)

• Some revision of confidence intervals


• Applying confidence intervals


• Factors affecting the size of the confidence interval


• Confidence intervals and P values


• Interpretation of confidence intervals

Download (PDF, 261KB)

Source: UKMi

 

Statistics in Divided Doses

Critical Appraisal Practice Paper 2

Total marks: 23
Time allowed: 90mins

Paper: High-sensitivity versus conventional troponin in the emergency department for the diagnosis of acute myocardial infarction 

Download (PDF, 446KB)

1.      Provide a summary / abstract for the paper. (Up to 5 marks)

Answer

Answer

This should include all or some of the following points:

Background: Recently, newer assays for cardiac troponin (cTn) have been developed which are able to detect changes in concentration of the biomarker at or below the 99th percentile for a normal population.

Objective: The objective of this study was to compare the diagnostic performance of a new high-sensitivity troponin T (HsTnT) assay to that of conventional cTnI for the diagnosis of acute myocardial infarction (AMI) according to pretest probability (PTP).

Design: A prospective observational study of consecutive patients who presented to emergency departments in France with chest pain suggestive of AMI.

Setting: Three French Emergency Departments.

Participants: Adult patients presenting with chest pain suggestive of acute myocardial infarction with onset within the previous 6 hours.

Outcome measures: Levels of HsTnT were measured at presentation, blinded to the emergency physicians, who were asked to estimate the empirical pretest probability (PTP) of AMI.

The discharge diagnosis (of AMI or not) was adjudicated by two independent experts (both ED physicians) on the basis of all available data up to 30 days post presentation.

Results: A total of 317 patients were included, comprising 149 (47%) who were considered to have low PTP, 109 (34%) who were considered to have moderate PTP and 59 (19%) who were considered to have high PTP.

AMI was confirmed in 45 patients (14%), 22 (9%) of whom were considered to have low to moderate PTP and 23 (39%) of whom were considered to have high PTP (P < 0.001).

In the low to moderate PTP group, HsTnT levels ≥ 0.014 μg/L identified AMI with a higher sensitivity than cTnI (91%, (95% CI 79 to 100), vs. 77% (95%

CI 60 to 95); P = 0.001), but the negative predictive value was not different (99% (95% CI 98 to 100) vs. 98% (95% CI 96 to 100)).

There was no difference in area under the receiver operating characteristic (ROC) curve between HsTnT and cTnI (0.93 (95% CI 0.90 to 0.98) vs. 0.94 (95% CI 0.88 to 0.97), respectively).

Conclusion: In patients with low to moderate PTP of AMI, HsTnT is slightly more useful than cTnI. Our results confirm that the use of HsTnT has a higher sensitivity than conventional cTnI.

2.      Give three strengths and three weaknesses of the study design (up to 3 marks)

Answer

Answer

Strengths:   

• Prospective study; consecutive patients


•  Done in a European ED setting


• Pragmatic approach to other aspects of patient care (very real world)


• Outcome measures clearly defined (AMI, unstable angina, other)^*. At least two independent people decided upon the outcome.


• Treating and enrolling physicians blind to the results of HsTnT assay.


• Biologists assessing the level of HsTnT blind to patient data.

Weaknesses:         

• Small numbers of patients


• Different analysers measured the HsTnT levels


• *ED physicians (not cardiologists) diagnosed AMI and other outcomes.


• Not all patients were admitted – its unclear if positive attempts were made to contact discharged patients to find out what happened to them at 30 days or if the authors simply used what information they had to decide upon outcome. I suspect the later.


• Different timings for the HsTnT level based only on when the patient arrived.


• Gestalt used to risk stratify patients (rather than a standardised scoring system)

3.      Explain why this study may have been subject to “incorporation” or “work up” bias. Suggest two ways in which this could have been avoided in this study (up to 4 marks)

Answer

Answer

It appears to me that the result of the conventional troponin test (cTnI) was used in some cases to determine the need for admission (or not). Since all patients had a conventional troponin test, those with a low pre-test probability of AMI and a negative cTnI were probably discharged. This seems to amount to 39% of the patients (61% were admitted).

Thus the cTnI result helps to determine whether or not further investigations are carried out. It is not too great a leap to assume that the results of cTnI and those of HsTnT are highly correlated.

Ideally the diagnosis of the reference standard (which in this case is based on a review of notes and subsequent investigations in hospital) should be made entirely independently of the interpretation of the diagnostic test under evaluation.

The test under evaluation is the troponin. However, some of the investigations in hospital were only arranged if the troponin was positive. Other patients were discharged. Hence some of the patients may have been “deprived” of the opportunity to be diagnosed with AMI

Incorporation bias thus results in an over estimation of the diagnostic accuracy of a test.

Further explanation of incorporation bias / work-up bias can be found here: http://www.cjem-online.ca/v10/n2/p174

Ways to reduce the influence of incorporation bias in this study include:

Changing the primary outcome measure to, for example, death by 30 days and obtaining the answer for all patients (but probably fewer deaths and hence a bigger study would be needed)

Admitting all patients and performing a standardised set of investigations regardless of the troponin result.

4.    The following is an excerpt from the methods section:

“We followed most of the recommendations concerning the reporting of diagnostic studies set forth by the Standards for Reporting of Diagnostic Accuracy initiative”

Give 4 elements of the STARD guidelines which should be reported in a diagnostic study such as this.  (Up to 4 marks)

Answer

Answer

STARD checklist for reporting of studies of diagnostic accuracy (version January 2003)

Section and Topic	Item#		On page #
TITLE/ABSTRACT/KEYWORDS	1	Identify the article as a study of diagnostic accuracy (recommend MeSH heading "sensitivity and specificity").
INTRODUCTION	2	State the research questions or study aims, such as estimating diagnostic accuracy or comparing accuracy between tests or across participant groups.
METHODS
Participants	3	The study population: The inclusion and exclusion criteria, setting and locations where data were collected.
	4	Participant recruitment: Was recruitment based on presenting symptoms, results from previous tests, or the fact that the participants had received the index tests or the reference standard?
	5	Participant sampling: Was the study population a consecutive series of participants defined by the selection criteria in item 3 and 4? If not, specify how participants were further selected.
	6	Data collection: Was data collection planned before the index test and reference standard were performed (prospective study) or after (retrospective study)?
Test methods	7	The reference standard and its rationale.
	8	Technical specifications of material and methods involved including how and when measurements were taken, and/or cite references for index tests and reference standard.
	9	Definition of and rationale for the units, cut-offs and/or categories of the results of the index tests and the reference standard.
	10	The number, training and expertise of the persons executing and reading the index tests and the reference standard.
	11	Whether or not the readers of the index tests and reference standard were blind (masked) to the results of the other test and describe any other clinical information available to the readers.
Statistical methods	12	Methods for calculating or comparing measures of diagnostic accuracy, and the statistical methods used to quantify uncertainty (e.g. 95% confidence intervals).
	13	Methods for calculating test reproducibility, if done.
RESULTS
Participants	14	When study was performed, including beginning and end dates of recruitment.
	15	Clinical and demographic characteristics of the study population (at least information on age, gender, spectrum of presenting symptoms).
	16	The number of participants satisfying the criteria for inclusion who did or did not undergo the index tests and/or the reference standard; describe why participants failed to undergo either test (a flow diagram is strongly recommended).
Test results	17	Time-interval between the index tests and the reference standard, and any treatment administered in between.
	18	Distribution of severity of disease (define criteria) in those with the target condition; other diagnoses in participants without the target condition.
	19	A cross tabulation of the results of the index tests (including indeterminate and missing results) by the results of the reference standard; for continuous results, the distribution of the test results by the results of the reference standard.
	20	Any adverse events from performing the index tests or the reference standard.
Estimates	21	Estimates of diagnostic accuracy and measures of statistical uncertainty (e.g. 95% confidence intervals).
	22	How indeterminate results, missing data and outliers of the index tests were handled.
	23	Estimates of variability of diagnostic accuracy between subgroups of participants, readers or centers, if done.
	24	Estimates of test reproducibility, if done.
DISCUSSION	25	Discuss the clinical applicability of the study findings.

5. The following figure is taken form the results section of the paper:

 Briefly describe how the ROC curve is generated. Broadly what does the “area under the curve” (AUC) tell you about the test? What value for AUC would be given for a perfect test and for a completely useless test? (Up to 3 marks)

Answer

Answer

ROC curves can be generated by using different cut off values to represent “positive” and “negative” for tests with continuous data points (e.g. quantitative D-Dimer, troponin I). Several points are chosen and then the sensitivity and specificity of the test for each cut off point is calculated. The ROC curve is simply a plot of the results with 1 – specificity on the x-axis and sensitivity of the y-axis (as above).

The ROC curve gives an assessment of the overall performance of the test at different cut off points for positive and negative. The larger the area under the curve then the better the test. Good tests will have curves which tend towards the top left of the graph.

A perfect test will have an AUC of 1.0 and a useless test will have an AUC of 0.5 (a straight diagonal line at 45 degrees to the origin, representing a 50:50 chance or a test no better than tossing a coin).

You will note that the 95% confidence interval for the AUC of HsTnT ranges from 0.881 to 0.971. i.e. the test appears to have good utility in the diagnosis of AMI.

6.      The following is a portion of one of the results tables:

a       Write one sentence explaining the results in each of the 4 columns pertaining to all patients with a positive cTnI. (4 marks)

Answer

Answer

71% of patients who are diagnosed with AMI will have a positive cTnI at presentation in the ED. Thus a negative test is not very good at ruling out likely development of AMI (SnOUT). It is not a very sensitive test when taken this early.

97% of patients who are not diagnosed with AMI will have a negative cTnI at presentation in the ED. cTnI is quite a specific test i.e. a positive test tends to rule AMI in (SpIN).

Only 78% of patients with a positive cTnI at presentation will be diagnosed with AMI (the PPV).

95% of patients with a negative test will not be diagnosed with AMI (the NPV).

The 95% confidence intervals around these levels indicate the range of plausible results (i.e. the range within which we are 95% certain that the real result lies).

b       Briefly explain how the prevalence of the target condition in the population influences the sensitivity of a test and its negative predictive value (2 marks)

Answer

Answer

The sensitivity of a test is unaffected by the prevalence of the disease as it only relates to patients who actually have the condition. Similarly the specificity of a test is unrelated to the prevalence of the disease as it only relates to those without the condition.

The negative predictive and positive predictive value, however, are both influenced by the prevalence of the disease in the population. If the prevalence of a condition in a population is small then the reported NPV will be higher than when using the same test in populations with a greater prevalence of the disease. This is one reason why it is important to ensure that the study patients are similar to your own before implementing the results of a study into your practice.

Put another way, if there are hardly any patients with the condition in any case then useless tests such as e.g. tossing a coin, might have quite a good NPV (because there aren’t that many cases to miss anyway). If however, half the patients had the disease tossing a tail wouldn’t always be associated with those without the disease and the NPV will fall.

Conversely, PPV for the same test is higher in populations with a high prevalence of disease and lower if the disease is uncommon.

7.      The following is another section from the same results table:

Write down the formulae for calculating the positive and negative likelihood ratios.

What do the positive and negative likelihood ratio results given in the top row mean? (Up to 3 marks)

Answer

Answer

Positive likelihood ratio:        LR+= sensitivity/1-specificity

Negative likelihood ratio:       LR-=1-sensitivity/specificity

LR + = 0.71 / 0.03    Approximately           21.5

LR- = 0.29 / 0.97      Approximately           0.32

LR+ above 10 means that a positive test will significantly increase the pre test probability enough to make the test worth doing. Figures like 21.5 mean that a positive test (cTnI) significantly increases the chance of predicting AMI (and are thus helpful in decision making).

LR – less than 0.1 means that a negative test will significantly decrease the pre test probability enough to make the test worth doing. Thus, the figure of 0.32 means that a negative test (cTnI) is not at all helpful in excluding subsequent AMI. (Mainly because it is done at arrival in ED and not the usual 12 hours).

Fagans nomogram is used to convert pre test to post test probabilities based on LRs.

Fagans nomogram

8.      What are your conclusions overall? Is this paper going to influence your practice? (Up to 2 Marks)

Answer

Answer

The HsTnT does appear to have a better sensitivity (93%) than the traditional troponin when taken on arrival in ED.  This may be helpful in improving time to discharge following attendance with chest pain and may reduce admissions.

However, the 95% CIs for the sensitivity are 89 – 100, and the possible sensitivities are thus too low to allow it to be confidently used to rule out MI based on this study.

Further studies are required.

Note: The answers are not done by me, they were given to me when I prepared my exam. If anyone have any questions, just drop a line below and we all can discuss.

 

Critical Appraisal Practice Paper 2